A nurse is caring for a client who is postpartum and has received methylergonovine. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication was effective?
Fundus firm to palpation
Report of absent breast pain
Increase in lochia
Increase in blood pressure
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason:
Methylergonovine is used postpartum to prevent or control uterine bleeding by causing the uterus to contract. A firm fundus upon palpation indicates that the uterus is contracting well, which helps to compress the blood vessels and prevent excessive bleeding. This is the expected outcome when methylergonovine is effective.
Choice B reason:
The absence of breast pain is not directly related to the effectiveness of methylergonovine. Breast pain or engorgement typically occurs when milk comes in a few days postpartum and is not influenced by uterotonic medications.
Choice C reason:
An increase in lochia, or postpartum vaginal discharge, is not an indicator of methylergonovine's effectiveness. Lochia will naturally change and decrease as the postpartum period progresses and is not directly affected by the medication.
Choice D reason:
An increase in blood pressure is not an expected effect of methylergonovine and could indicate a side effect or complication. Methylergonovine can cause hypertension as a side effect, so an increase in blood pressure would warrant further assessment rather than indicating effectiveness.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Magnesium sulfate is used in the management of severe preeclampsia primarily for seizure prophylaxis. One of the key side effects of magnesium sulfate is its impact on neuromuscular transmission, leading to diminished deep-tendon reflexes as serum magnesium levels rise. The therapeutic range for anticonvulsant prophylaxis is typically between 5-8 mg/dL. Reflexes may begin to diminish when serum levels reach 8-12 mg/dL, indicating potential magnesium toxicity. Therefore, diminished reflexes are a warning sign to reassess the infusion rate and possibly reduce or discontinue the medication.
Choice B reason:
A respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute falls within the normal adult range and suggests that the client's respiratory system is not being adversely affected by the magnesium sulfate infusion. Respiratory rate is a critical parameter to monitor during magnesium sulfate therapy, as respiratory depression is a serious side effect of magnesium toxicity. Maintaining a normal respiratory rate indicates that it is safe to continue the infusion at the current rate.
Choice C reason:
While a urine output of 50 mL/hr is on the lower end of the normal range, it is still considered adequate for most adults. In the setting of magnesium sulfate therapy for severe preeclampsia, maintaining adequate urine output is essential for ensuring that the kidneys can excrete the magnesium to prevent accumulation and toxicity. If urine output decreases significantly, it may necessitate reevaluation of the infusion rate or additional interventions to support renal function.
Choice D reason:
A heart rate of 56 beats per minute is slightly bradycardic but may not be clinically significant if the client is asymptomatic. However, magnesium has a direct effect on cardiac function, and high levels can lead to bradycardia and other cardiac conduction abnormalities. It is important to monitor the client's heart rate and rhythm during magnesium sulfate therapy to detect any early signs of cardiac involvement due to magnesium toxicity.
Correct Answer is ["8"]
Explanation
In the scenario provided, the Apgar score is calculated as follows:
- Appearance (skin color): The newborn has a pink trunk and head with bluish hands and feet, which scores 1 point.
- Pulse (heart rate): The heart rate is 130/min, which is above 100/min, so this scores 2 points.
- Grimace response (reflex irritability): The newborn cries in response to suctioning, which scores 2 points.
- Activity (muscle tone): The newborn has flexed extremities, which scores 2 points.
- Respiration (breathing effort): The cry is weak and slow, which scores 1 point.
Adding these up gives us a total Apgar score of 8 out of a possible 10 points.
Appearance (skin color): Normally, a score of 2 is given if the entire body is pink, 1 for pink body but blue extremities, and 0 if the whole body is pale or blue. The newborn's pink trunk and head with bluish hands and feet warrant a score of 1.
Pulse (heart rate): A score of 2 is given for a heart rate above 100/min, 1 for below 100/min, and 0 if there is no heartbeat. The newborn's heart rate of 130/min earns a score of 2.
Grimace response (reflex irritability): A score of 2 is given for a sneeze, cough, or vigorous cry, 1 for a grimace or feeble cry upon stimulation, and 0 for no response. The newborn's crying in response to suctioning gets a score of 2.
Activity (muscle tone): A score of 2 is given for active motion, 1 for some muscle tone and flexion of extremities, and 0 for limpness. The newborn's flexed extremities give a score of 2.
Respiration (breathing effort): A score of 2 is given for a good, strong cry, 1 for slow or irregular breathing, and 0 for no breathing. The newborn's weak and slow cry results in a score of 1.
The Apgar score helps the healthcare team decide if the newborn needs immediate medical care. A score of 7-10 is generally normal, 4-6 fairly low, and 3 and below critically low. An Apgar score of 8 indicates that the newborn is in good health but may need some medical attention, likely due to the weak and slow cry.
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