A nurse is caring for an antepartum client whose laboratory findings indicate a negative rubella titer. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this data?

The client requires a rubella vaccination at this time.

The client is not experiencing a rubella infection at this time.

The client requires a rubella immunization following delivery.

The client is immune to the rubella virus.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. The client requires a rubella vaccination at this time. This is incorrect because rubella vaccination is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the risk of congenital rubella syndrome. Vaccination should be administered postpartum.

B. The client is not experiencing a rubella infection at this time. While this statement is true, it does not address the need for future immunization, which is the critical aspect of the interpretation.

C. The client requires a rubella immunization following delivery. This is correct because a negative rubella titer indicates that the client is not immune to rubella and should receive the vaccine postpartum to prevent future infection.

D. The client is immune to the rubella virus. This is incorrect because a negative rubella titer indicates a lack of immunity to rubella, meaning the client is susceptible to infection.

Nursing Test Bank

Test Bank #1: RN Pharmacology Exams Test Bank #2: RN Medical-Surgical Exams Test Bank #3: RN Fundamentals Exams Test Bank #4: RN Maternal-Newborn Exams Test Bank #5: RN Anatomy and Physiology Exams Test Bank #6: RN Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Test Bank #7: RN Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Test Bank #9: RN Adult Health Test Bank #10: RN Dosage Calculation Test Bank #11: RN Community Health Exams Test Bank #12: RN Psychology Exams Test Bank #13: RN Nursing Care Of Children Test Bank #14: RN Foundations of Nursing Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Exam #1: RN Comprehensive predictor 2023 proctored exam Exam #2: Ati rn vati comprehensive predictor proctored exam Exam #3: Ati Rn Comprehensive Predictor Proctored Exam 2023 Exam #4: Rn Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Proctored Exam - St. Joseph Exam #5: RN Comprehensive Predictor Proctored Exam (National U CA San Diego) Exam #6: Ati rn comprehensive predictor 2023 retake proctored exam Exam #7: RN Hesi Exit Proctored Exam Exam #8: Hesi RN Exit proctored exam Exam #9: Hesi rn exit proctored exam Exam #10: Hesi Rn compass exit B proctored exam

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is ["B","E"]

Explanation

Choice A: Amniocentesis is not primarily performed to determine the gender of the fetus. The main indication for this procedure is to detect genetic abnormalities or chromosomal disorders.
Choice B: The primary purpose of an amniocentesis is to detect chromosomal abnormalities such as Down syndrome (trisomy 21), trisomy 18, and trisomy 13, among others.
Choice C: Rh incompatibility is assessed through blood tests, not amniocentesis. It involves determining the Rh factor of the mother's blood and monitoring for potential Rh sensitization.

Choice D: Cephalopelvic disproportion refers to a situation where the baby's head is too large or the mother's pelvis is too small to allow for a vaginal delivery. It is not related to amniocentesis.
Choice E: While detecting neural tube defects can be done through amniocentesis, it is not the primary indication for the procedure. Neural tube defects can also be screened for through blood tests and ultrasound examinations. Amniocentesis is more commonly used for chromosomal analysis.

A. Contractions lasting 2 minutes and with no rest between contractions. B. Pressure on the perineum causing the client to have the desire to bear down. C. Discharge consisting of clear fluid from the vagina. D. Passage of a bloodtinged mucous plug.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A: The first priority assessment finding to report to the provider is contractions lasting 2 minutes and with no rest between contractions. Prolonged contractions without adequate rest can lead to uterine hyperstimulation and fetal distress, potentially compromising the wellbeing of both the client and the baby. The provider needs to be informed immediately for further

evaluation and intervention.

Choice B: Pressure on the perineum and the desire to bear down indicate that the client is experiencing the urge to push, which is expected during the second stage of labor, not during the active phase of the first stage. It is not the first priority to report.

Choice C: Clear fluid discharge from the vagina can indicate rupture of membranes, but it is not an immediate concern unless the fluid is meconiumstained or there are other signs of fetal distress.

Choice D: Passage of a bloodtinged mucous plug (also known as "bloody show") is a common sign that labor is approaching, but it is not an immediate concern unless there are other signs of labor progression or complications. It is not the first priority to report.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

A nurse is caring for an antepartum client whose laboratory findings indicate a negative rubella titer. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this data?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is teaching a client who is at 18 weeks of gestation and is to undergo an amniocentesis. The nurse should explain that the purpose of this test is to identify which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer is ["B","E"]

Explanation

A nurse is admitting a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and is in the active phase of the first stage of labor. Which of the following assessment findings is the first priority for the nurse to report to the provider?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this clinical finding?

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 18 weeks of gestation. The client tells the nurse that she felt fluttering movements in her abdomen 3 days ago. The nurse should interpret this finding as which of the following?

A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and who asks about the signs that precede the onset of labor. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a sign that precedes labor?

A nurse is creating the plan of care for a client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and in active labor. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

A nurse in a prenatal clinic is teaching a client who has a new prescription for dinoprostone (Cervidil) gel. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

A nurse is providing teaching about expected gestational changes to a client who is at 12 weeks of gestation. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor and notes late decelerations on the fetal monitor. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

A nurse is providing teaching about Kegel exercises to a group of clients who are in the third trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following statements by a client indicates understanding of the teaching?