A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings.
Which of the following factors places the client at risk for aspiration?
Sitting in high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
A residual of 65 mL 1 hr postprandial.
Receiving a high-osmolarity formula.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Sitting in high-Fowler's position during the feeding is actually a preventive measure against aspiration. High-Fowler's position, which involves sitting the patient upright at a 90-degree angle, reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and preventing the regurgitation of gastric contents into the lungs.
Choice B rationale:
A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) puts the client at risk for aspiration. GERD is a chronic condition in which stomach acid frequently flows back into the esophagus, potentially reaching the throat and lungs, increasing the risk of aspiration during enteral feedings. Aspiration pneumonia, a serious complication, can develop if stomach contents enter the lungs.
Choice C rationale:
A residual of 65 mL 1 hr postprandial indicates that a significant amount of the feeding solution has not been absorbed, raising concerns about delayed gastric emptying. While this situation might require monitoring and adjustments to the feeding regimen, it does not directly increase the risk of aspiration. Aspiration risk is more related to the reflux of stomach contents into the airways.
Choice D rationale:
Receiving a high-osmolarity formula alone does not directly increase the risk of aspiration. High-osmolarity formulas might require careful administration and monitoring to prevent complications, but aspiration risk is more closely associated with the client's underlying conditions, such as GERD.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B: Dyspnea.
Choice B rationale: Dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, is a potential indication of a recurrent pulmonary embolism and should be reported immediately. Early detection and intervention are crucial to prevent life-threatening complications.
Choice A rationale: Hypotension may be a concerning finding in postoperative clients, but it is not the priority for a client with a history of pulmonary embolism. Hypotension could be related to various factors like bleeding or anesthesia effects.
Choice C rationale: Dry cough may occur as a result of irritation or inflammation in the airway due to the surgical procedure or anesthesia. Although it should be monitored, it is not the highest priority in this situation.
Choice D rationale: Tachycardia can be a common postoperative finding due to pain, anxiety, or other factors. Although it should be monitored and addressed, it is not the most critical concern in this case. Dyspnea is more closely related to a possible pulmonary embolism and should be reported promptly.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Absence seizures typically last for a few seconds, not 30 to 60 seconds. This choice is incorrect because it provides inaccurate information about the duration of absence seizures.
Choice B rationale:
Absence seizures are brief episodes of staring that can be mistaken for daydreaming. It is crucial for the parent to recognize this symptom to ensure the child's safety and seek appropriate medical attention if needed.
Choice C rationale:
Absence seizures usually occur without warning or an aura. There is no specific warning sign before the onset of absence seizures, making this choice incorrect.
Choice D rationale:
Absence seizures have a sudden onset and offset without any warning signs, so they do not have a gradual onset. This information is incorrect regarding absence seizures.
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