A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving vancomycin by IV infusion over 30 min. Which of the following findings indicate the clien experiencing a vancomycin infusion reaction?

The client has an increased creatinine level.

The client is experiencing hypotension.

The client's IV site is red and edematous.

The c’ient reports ringing in their ears.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A) The client has an increased creatinine level: While an increased creatinine level may indicate renal impairment, it is not specific to a vancomycin infusion reaction. Elevated creatinine levels may occur due to various factors, including underlying kidney disease or dehydration.

B) The client is experiencing hypotension: This is the correct answer. Hypotension, or low blood pressure, can be a manifestation of a vancomycin infusion reaction. Vancomycin infusion reactions may include anaphylaxis or anaphylactoid reactions, which can lead to systemic vasodilation and subsequent hypotension.

C) The client's IV site is red and edematous: Redness ’nd edema at the IV site may indicate phlebitis or infiltration, which are local complications rather than systemic reactions to vancomycin infusion.

D) The client reports ringing in their ears: Ringing in the ears, also known as tinnitus, is a potential side effect of vancomycin, particularly with high doses or prolonged use. However, it is not specific to a vancomycin infusion reaction and may occur independently of the infusion process.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time): While the PTT is a laboratory test used to assess the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade and monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy, it is not routinely used to monitor warfarin therapy. Therefore, reviewing the PTT prior to administering warfarin is not necessary.

B) PT (Prothrombin Time): Prothrombin time measures the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade and is commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy. Since warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, such as factors II, VII, IX, and X, monitoring the PT allows for the assessment of the anticoagulant effect of warfarin and helps guide dosing adjustments. Therefore, reviewing the PT prior to administering warfarin is essential to ensure appropriate anticoagulation therapy.

C) WBC (White Blood Cell Count): The white blood cell count is not directly related to warfarin therapy monitoring. While an elevated white blood cell count may indicate infection, it is not specific to warfarin therapy and does not influence the administration of the medication.

D) Total iron-binding capacity: Total iron-binding capacity is a laboratory test used to assess iron status and is not relevant to monitoring warfarin therapy. It measures the body's ability to bind and transport iron in the blood, and its results are not indicative of warfarin's anticoagulant effect or dosage adjustments.

A. Ondansetron B. Nalbuphine C. Insulin glargine D. Acetaminophen

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

B) Nalbuphine: Nalbuphine is an opioid analgesic that acts on the central nervous system to relieve pain. When administered concurrently with morphine, there is a risk of additive respiratory depression and other opioid-related side effects, such as sedation and hypotension. Therefore, the nurse should clarify the prescription for nalbuphine with the provider to ensure that the combination of opioid medications is appropriate for the client's pain management. Additionally, nalbuphine has mixed agonist-antagonist properties and can precipitate withdrawal symptoms in clients who are physically dependent on full opioid agonists like morphine. Due to these potential interactions and safety concerns, it is essential for the nurse to obtain clarification from the provider before administering nalbuphine to the client receiving morphine via a PCA pump.

A) Ondansetron: Ondansetron is an antiemetic medication commonly prescribed to manage nausea and vomiting, which can be side effects of opioid analgesics like morphine. There are no significant contraindications or interactions between ondansetron and morphine, making it a suitable choice for adjunctive therapy in clients receiving PCA morphine for cancer pain.

C) Insulin glargine: Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin analog used to control blood glucose levels in clients with diabetes mellitus. While clients with cancer may have comorbidities such as diabetes, the prescription for insulin glargine is unlikely to require clarification in the context of concurrent morphine use. However, the nurse should verify the client's current blood glucose levels and adjust the insulin dosage as needed based on the client's glycemic control.

D) Acetaminophen: Acetaminophen is a non-opioid analgesic commonly used to manage mild to moderate pain. When used in combination with opioids like morphine, acetaminophen can provide additive pain relief and may reduce the total opioid dosage required. There are no significant contraindications or interactions between acetaminophen and morphine, making it a suitable choice for adjunctive pain management in clients receiving PCA morphine for cancer pain.

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A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving vancomycin by IV infusion over 30 min. Which of the following findings indicate the clien experiencing a vancomycin infusion reaction?

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