A nurse is caring for a client who is seeking information about end-of-life decisions. According to the Patient Self-Determination Act, which of the following applies to medical decisions that can be made within organizations that receive Medicare and Medicaid reimbursements?
The person holding financial power of attorney will make health care decisions based on the client's advance directives.
The client has the right to refuse medical treatment, even if health care providers recommend it.
The client's eldest adult child has the right to change advance directives in an end-of-life situation.
If the client's advance directives are in writing and notarized, the client cannot change it in the future.
The Correct Answer is B
Rationale:
A. The person holding financial power of attorney will make health care decisions based on the client's advance directives: A financial power of attorney manages financial matters, not health care decisions. A separate designation such as a health care proxy or medical power of attorney is needed for making medical decisions.
B. The client has the right to refuse medical treatment, even if health care providers recommend it: Under the Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA), clients have the legal right to make autonomous decisions about their care, including the right to refuse or discontinue treatment, regardless of medical advice.
C. The client's eldest adult child has the right to change advance directives in an end-of-life situation: Advance directives reflect the client’s own decisions. No family member, regardless of birth order, has the legal authority to change them unless specifically authorized as a health care proxy and even then, only if the client is incapacitated.
D. If the client's advance directives are in writing and notarized, the client cannot change it in the future: Clients can revise or revoke advance directives at any time, as long as they remain mentally competent. Notarization does not make the document legally fixed or unchangeable.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Diabetes screening: Screening for diabetes is a form of secondary prevention, aimed at early identification and intervention to prevent disease progression in asymptomatic individuals.
B. Nutrition counseling: Nutrition counseling is a primary prevention strategy when used to promote health and prevent disease. It aims to reduce risk factors before illness occurs.
C. Family planning: Family planning falls under primary prevention as it involves proactive measures to prevent unintended pregnancies and support reproductive health.
D. Physical therapy: Physical therapy is a tertiary prevention measure focused on reducing the impact of an existing disease or injury. It helps restore function, prevent further disability, and improve quality of life in individuals with chronic or advanced conditions.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. A client who has decreased interleukin-6 levels: Interleukin-6 is a pro-inflammatory cytokine that may be elevated in depression, but its decrease is not an indicator for antidepressant use. It’s not routinely used to determine the need for antidepressant therapy in clinical practice.
B. A client who has decreased urine cortisol levels: Depression is more commonly associated with increased cortisol levels due to stress responses. Low cortisol may be seen in conditions like Addison's disease but does not typically guide antidepressant use.
C. A client who has decreased C-reactive protein levels: CRP is a nonspecific inflammatory marker. While elevated CRP has been observed in some individuals with depression, a decreased CRP level would not indicate the need for antidepressant therapy.
D. A client who has decreased serotonin levels: Low serotonin levels are closely linked to depression pathophysiology. Many antidepressants, such as SSRIs, target serotonin levels to relieve depressive symptoms, making this the most relevant indicator for antidepressant therapy.
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