A nurse is caring for a client with a history of rheumatoid arthritis who takes corticosteroids on a regular basis. The client asks the nurse about the potential complications of taking corticosteroids. What is the nurse's best response?
"This medication can lead to thrombocytopenia."
"This medication can lead to hypotension."
"This medication can cause immunosuppression."
"This medication can cause anemia."
The Correct Answer is C
A. Corticosteroids are not typically associated with causing thrombocytopenia. Their primary effects are on the immune system and metabolism.
B. Corticosteroids more commonly cause hypertension due to fluid retention and increased sensitivity to vasoconstrictors, rather than hypotension.
C. Corticosteroids cause immunosuppression by inhibiting the function of various immune cells and reducing the production of inflammatory cytokines. This increases the risk of infections.
D. Anemia is not a direct effect of corticosteroid use. The medication's impact on the bone marrow typically affects the white blood cell count, particularly in causing leukocytosis, rather than leading to anemia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
C. The unconscious adult client with a sucking chest wound and low SpO2 (85%) is in immediate need of intervention. A sucking chest wound is a life-threatening injury that can lead to respiratory distress and compromised oxygenation. This client requires immediate attention to address the chest wound and improve oxygenation.
A. The unconscious client with no respirations and an ineffective airway attempt is likely beyond rescue, making them lower priority compared to those with potentially reversible conditions.
B. The conscious client with a broken tibia and elevated vital signs is stable enough to be seen after more critical cases are addressed.
D. The conscious client with shortness of breath and a high respiratory rate is concerning but not as immediately life-threatening as a client with a sucking chest wound.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. DKA occurs due to a significant deficiency of insulin rather than issues with cell response to insulin. The condition leads to high blood glucose and ketone production because there is not enough insulin to regulate glucose levels effectively.
B. DKA is primarily associated with diabetes mellitus type 1, not type 2. It can occur due to a lack of insulin and is not solely caused by illness, although illness can exacerbate it.
C. DKA is not limited to clients with diabetes mellitus type 1 who experience septic shock. It can occur in anyone with type 1 diabetes due to severe insulin deficiency, though septic shock can complicate the condition.
D. DKA results from a complete absence of insulin, which is characteristic of poorly controlled or undiagnosed diabetes mellitus type 1. This insulin deficiency leads to elevated blood glucose levels and ketone formation.
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