An immunocompromised older adult has developed a urinary tract infection, and the healthcare team recognizes the need to prevent an exacerbation of the client's infection that could result in sepsis and septic shock. What action should the nurse perform to reduce the client's risk of septic shock?

Insert a new indwelling urinary catheter

Collect blood cultures

Initiate intravenous (IV) antibiotics

Obtain placement of an intravenous access for fluid administration

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Inserting a new indwelling urinary catheter could introduce new pathogens and increase the risk of infection rather than reduce it. Indwelling catheters are a known risk factor for urinary tract infections and should be avoided if possible.
B. Collecting blood cultures is an important diagnostic step, especially if sepsis is suspected. However, this action alone does not directly reduce the risk of septic shock. It is a part of the process but not the most immediate intervention.
C. Initiating intravenous (IV) antibiotics is the most critical intervention to reduce the risk of septic shock. Prompt administration of antibiotics can help control the infection before it progresses to sepsis, making this the priority action.
D. Obtaining placement of an intravenous access for fluid administration is necessary for managing sepsis or septic shock, but the first step should be administering antibiotics to treat the infection causing the sepsis. Fluid administration supports blood pressure and circulation but does not directly address the underlying infection.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Monitoring for symptoms of anemia is essential as methotrexate can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia. The nurse should instruct the client to report symptoms like fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath.
B. Methotrexate is more likely to cause gastrointestinal side effects like nausea and loss of appetite rather than an increase in appetite.
C. Methotrexate is typically administered orally or by injection, not via a patch, so rotating the site of patch application is not relevant.
D. Relief of symptoms from methotrexate generally takes several weeks to months. It is important to set realistic expectations about the timeline for symptom improvement.

A. "Tremors, nervousness, and insomnia may indicate your dose is too high." B. "Notify your healthcare provider if you begin to lose weight." C. "This medication will require monitoring for increased risk for bleeding." D. "The medication decreases the overproduction of the thyroid hormone thyroxine."

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Levothyroxine is a thyroid hormone replacement used to treat hypothyroidism. Symptoms such as tremors, nervousness, and insomnia can indicate that the dose is too high, as these are signs of hyperthyroidism.
B. Weight loss is not a typical reason to notify the healthcare provider unless it is accompanied by other symptoms of hyperthyroidism. Monitoring for symptoms of excessive thyroid hormone can be more critical.
C. Levothyroxine does not typically require monitoring for an increased risk of bleeding. This medication primarily affects thyroid hormone levels and does not have a direct impact on blood clotting.
D. Levothyroxine increases, rather than decreases, thyroid hormone levels. It is used to replace or supplement thyroid hormone in the case of hypothyroidism, not to decrease thyroid hormone production.

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An immunocompromised older adult has developed a urinary tract infection, and the healthcare team recognizes the need to prevent an exacerbation of the client's infection that could result in sepsis and septic shock. What action should the nurse perform to reduce the client's risk of septic shock?

Nursing Test Bank

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