A nurse is caring for a female client, age 32, who is at 28 weeks of gestation, admitted to the antepartum unit with vaginal bleeding.
Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client’s progress.
The Correct Answer is []
Rationale for correct condition
Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical opening, causing painless bright red vaginal bleeding during the second or third trimester. The client’s presentation of painless vaginal bleeding without contractions or abdominal tenderness supports this diagnosis. Fundal height measuring 27 cm at 28 weeks aligns with normal gestation, and the absence of uterine irritability or pain differentiates it from abruptio placentae. Fetal heart rate of 170/min with minimal variability reflects fetal stress but no immediate decelerations. These features are consistent with placenta previa rather than other causes of bleeding.
Rationale for correct actions
Strict bed rest reduces mechanical disruption of the placenta previa site, minimizing further bleeding risk and improving maternal-fetal oxygenation. Large-bore IV access is essential to rapidly administer fluids or blood products if hemorrhage occurs, maintaining maternal hemodynamic stability. Both actions are critical for managing acute vaginal bleeding while ensuring safety until delivery or further intervention.
Rationale for correct parameters
Monitoring fetal well-being via continuous electronic fetal monitoring detects signs of hypoxia or distress, guiding timely interventions. Tracking vaginal bleeding quantifies blood loss and progression, essential to assess severity and need for transfusion. Both parameters directly evaluate maternal and fetal status during placenta previa management.
Rationale for incorrect conditions
Abruptio placentae involves premature placental separation causing painful bleeding and uterine tenderness, absent here. Chorioamnionitis presents with maternal fever, uterine tenderness, and fetal tachycardia due to infection, none reported. Vasa previa entails fetal vessel rupture causing rapid fetal distress and bleeding; no signs of fetal demise or sudden distress are evident.
Rationale for incorrect actions
Administering pitocin is contraindicated as it may cause contractions worsening bleeding in placenta previa. Methotrexate treats ectopic pregnancy or trophoblastic disease, unrelated here. Vaginal examination risks provoking hemorrhage and is avoided in placenta previa.
Rationale for incorrect parameters
White blood cell count monitors infection, not relevant in this case without fever or leukocytosis. Cervical dilation monitoring is contraindicated due to risk of hemorrhage in placenta previa. Beta-human chorionic gonadotropin levels evaluate pregnancy viability or trophoblastic disease, irrelevant here.
Take home points
- Placenta previa presents as painless bright red bleeding in the third trimester.
- Avoid vaginal examinations to prevent hemorrhage in placenta previa.
- Strict bed rest and IV access are critical management steps.
- Differentiate placenta previa from abruptio placentae by pain and uterine tenderness.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Group B Streptococcus (GBS) screening is typically performed much later in pregnancy, usually between 35 and 37 weeks of gestation. This screening is crucial for identifying carriers and administering prophylactic antibiotics during labor to prevent vertical transmission to the newborn, which can cause severe infections like sepsis or meningitis.
Choice B rationale
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) screening is a standard diagnostic test offered to all pregnant clients during their first prenatal visit, typically around 12 weeks of gestation. Early detection allows for timely interventions, such as antiretroviral therapy, to reduce the risk of mother-to-child transmission and improve maternal health outcomes.
Choice C rationale
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is an invasive diagnostic procedure performed earlier in pregnancy, usually between 10 and 13 weeks of gestation, but it is not a routine screening test. It is typically offered to clients at high risk for genetic disorders due to family history, advanced maternal age, or abnormal prenatal screening results.
Choice D rationale
Cervical cone biopsy is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure used to remove a cone-shaped piece of tissue from the cervix, typically to evaluate or treat abnormal cervical cells. It is not a routine diagnostic test during a normal prenatal visit and is usually performed prior to pregnancy or if there are specific gynecological concerns.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The specific volume of formula for gavage feeding a newborn, such as 20 mL, depends on the newborn's weight, gestational age, and clinical condition. A blanket recommendation of 20 mL without this individualized assessment is inappropriate and could lead to over or underfeeding, impacting growth and gastrointestinal tolerance.
Choice B rationale
Placing a newborn in a supine position immediately after gavage feedings increases the risk of aspiration, especially for infants with immature swallowing reflexes or reflux. The newborn should be positioned on their right side or semi-Fowler's position to facilitate gastric emptying and minimize aspiration risk.
Choice C rationale
While cluster feeding (multiple feedings close together) is a natural pattern for some breastfed infants, for gavage feeding, regular, scheduled intervals are typically maintained to ensure consistent nutrient delivery and proper digestion, especially in newborns who are medically fragile. Cluster feeding is not a standard gavage feeding practice.
Choice D rationale
Nonnutritive sucking (e.g., pacifier use) during gavage feedings is crucial for promoting oral motor development and associating the feeling of fullness with sucking. This helps prevent oral aversion and prepares the newborn for eventual oral feeding, stimulating gastric secretions and improving digestion.
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