A nurse is caring for a female client, age 32, who is at 28 weeks of gestation, admitted to the antepartum unit with vaginal bleeding.
Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client’s progress.
The Correct Answer is []
Rationale for correct condition
Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical opening, causing painless bright red vaginal bleeding during the second or third trimester. The client’s presentation of painless vaginal bleeding without contractions or abdominal tenderness supports this diagnosis. Fundal height measuring 27 cm at 28 weeks aligns with normal gestation, and the absence of uterine irritability or pain differentiates it from abruptio placentae. Fetal heart rate of 170/min with minimal variability reflects fetal stress but no immediate decelerations. These features are consistent with placenta previa rather than other causes of bleeding.
Rationale for correct actions
Strict bed rest reduces mechanical disruption of the placenta previa site, minimizing further bleeding risk and improving maternal-fetal oxygenation. Large-bore IV access is essential to rapidly administer fluids or blood products if hemorrhage occurs, maintaining maternal hemodynamic stability. Both actions are critical for managing acute vaginal bleeding while ensuring safety until delivery or further intervention.
Rationale for correct parameters
Monitoring fetal well-being via continuous electronic fetal monitoring detects signs of hypoxia or distress, guiding timely interventions. Tracking vaginal bleeding quantifies blood loss and progression, essential to assess severity and need for transfusion. Both parameters directly evaluate maternal and fetal status during placenta previa management.
Rationale for incorrect conditions
Abruptio placentae involves premature placental separation causing painful bleeding and uterine tenderness, absent here. Chorioamnionitis presents with maternal fever, uterine tenderness, and fetal tachycardia due to infection, none reported. Vasa previa entails fetal vessel rupture causing rapid fetal distress and bleeding; no signs of fetal demise or sudden distress are evident.
Rationale for incorrect actions
Administering pitocin is contraindicated as it may cause contractions worsening bleeding in placenta previa. Methotrexate treats ectopic pregnancy or trophoblastic disease, unrelated here. Vaginal examination risks provoking hemorrhage and is avoided in placenta previa.
Rationale for incorrect parameters
White blood cell count monitors infection, not relevant in this case without fever or leukocytosis. Cervical dilation monitoring is contraindicated due to risk of hemorrhage in placenta previa. Beta-human chorionic gonadotropin levels evaluate pregnancy viability or trophoblastic disease, irrelevant here.
Take home points
- Placenta previa presents as painless bright red bleeding in the third trimester.
- Avoid vaginal examinations to prevent hemorrhage in placenta previa.
- Strict bed rest and IV access are critical management steps.
- Differentiate placenta previa from abruptio placentae by pain and uterine tenderness.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: The client exhibits signs consistent with severe preeclampsia including blood pressure above 160/110 mm Hg, 3+ to 4+ deep tendon reflexes, and positive clonus, which are neurological indicators of central nervous system irritability. These findings increase the risk for eclamptic seizures. The headache, visual disturbances (“spots”), and epigastric pain further indicate imminent seizure risk from cerebral edema and vasospasm. Early intervention is crucial to prevent progression to eclampsia.
Choice B rationale: Elevated blood pressure combined with preeclampsia significantly raises the risk of abruptio placentae, the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. This occurs because hypertension causes vasospasm and weakening of the placental attachment, increasing placental insufficiency and hemorrhage. The client’s edema and headache indicate vascular endothelial dysfunction, contributing to this risk. Abruptio placentae is a critical obstetric emergency requiring urgent recognition.
Choice C rationale: The client’s symptoms and signs of hypertension, headache, epigastric pain, and elevated blood pressure with edema suggest progression toward HELLP syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets). Although labs are not provided, the clinical presentation fits the syndrome’s prodromal phase. HELLP syndrome is a severe variant of preeclampsia with hepatic involvement, which can cause multiorgan dysfunction and increased maternal-fetal morbidity if untreated.
Choice D rationale: Polyuria, or excessive urine output, is not typical in preeclampsia or related hypertensive disorders; instead, oliguria (decreased urine output below 30 mL/hr) may occur due to renal impairment. The client’s urine output of 25–55 mL/hr borders low normal, signaling possible kidney hypoperfusion, but polyuria is not a recognized complication here. Polyuria is more associated with diabetes or diuretic therapy, not hypertensive pregnancy disorders.
Choice E rationale: Ketoacidosis is metabolic acidosis due to ketone accumulation from uncontrolled diabetes or starvation. This client has no history or symptoms of diabetes or starvation, and no laboratory evidence of hyperglycemia or acidosis is reported. Ketoacidosis is not a complication linked to preeclampsia or hypertension in pregnancy and is therefore unlikely in this case.
Choice F rationale: Fetal macrosomia is excessive fetal growth usually related to maternal diabetes or obesity. This client has no indications of gestational diabetes or excessive fetal growth; fetal heart rate and contractions are within normal limits, and no mention of abnormal fundal height or ultrasound findings is given. The mild hypertension and edema do not predispose to macrosomia.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The specific volume of formula for gavage feeding a newborn, such as 20 mL, depends on the newborn's weight, gestational age, and clinical condition. A blanket recommendation of 20 mL without this individualized assessment is inappropriate and could lead to over or underfeeding, impacting growth and gastrointestinal tolerance.
Choice B rationale
Placing a newborn in a supine position immediately after gavage feedings increases the risk of aspiration, especially for infants with immature swallowing reflexes or reflux. The newborn should be positioned on their right side or semi-Fowler's position to facilitate gastric emptying and minimize aspiration risk.
Choice C rationale
While cluster feeding (multiple feedings close together) is a natural pattern for some breastfed infants, for gavage feeding, regular, scheduled intervals are typically maintained to ensure consistent nutrient delivery and proper digestion, especially in newborns who are medically fragile. Cluster feeding is not a standard gavage feeding practice.
Choice D rationale
Nonnutritive sucking (e.g., pacifier use) during gavage feedings is crucial for promoting oral motor development and associating the feeling of fullness with sucking. This helps prevent oral aversion and prepares the newborn for eventual oral feeding, stimulating gastric secretions and improving digestion.
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