A nurse is planning care for a client who is 1 hr postpartum and has preeclampsia without severe features. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Obtain a prescription for misoprostol.
Assess for edema.
Restrict daily oral fluid intake.
Administer an IV bolus of lactated Ringer's.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Misoprostol is not typically used for preeclampsia management. It’s used for cervical ripening and labor induction.
Choice B rationale:
Assessing for edema is important in a client with preeclampsia as it can indicate a worsening condition.
Choice C rationale:
Restricting daily oral fluid intake is not typically part of the management plan for preeclampsia without severe features.
Choice D rationale:
Administering an IV bolus of lactated Ringer’s is not typically part of the management plan for preeclampsia without severe features.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Desiring privacy with the newborn is not specific to the taking-in phase.
Choice B rationale:
Taking charge of all mothering tasks is more indicative of the taking-hold phase.
Choice C rationale:
Putting personal needs aside is not specific to the taking-in phase.
Choice D rationale:
Reviewing the birth experience with others is characteristic of the taking-in phase.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Urinating 30 mL/hr is correct. This is within the normal urinary output range of 30 to 60 mL/hr, indicating effective voiding.
Choice B rationale:
Not feeling the urge to urinate is incorrect. This could indicate urinary retention, not effective voiding.
Choice C rationale:
A uterine fundus 2 cm above the umbilicus is incorrect. This is unrelated to the client’s ability to void effectively.
Choice D rationale:
A distended bladder upon palpation is incorrect. This could suggest urinary retention, not effective voiding.
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