A nurse is caring for a patient who has been prescribed aspirin for the management of their chronic pain. The patient asks the nurse about potential side effects and precautions related to taking aspirin. Which of the following statements by the nurse is correct regarding the use of aspirin?

Aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding, so be cautious if you have a history of bleeding disorders.

You should take aspirin on an empty stomach to maximize its effectiveness.

Aspirin is safe to take with any other medications you may be on without any interactions.

You can safely consume alcohol in moderation while taking aspirin as it won’t affect its action.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation by irreversibly blocking cyclooxygenase-1, reducing thromboxane A2 production, which increases bleeding risk. This is critical in patients with bleeding disorders, as it can exacerbate conditions like hemophilia or cause gastrointestinal bleeding, necessitating caution and monitoring during therapy.

Choice B reason: Taking aspirin on an empty stomach does not maximize effectiveness and may increase gastrointestinal irritation. Aspirin’s antiplatelet and analgesic effects are independent of food intake, but taking it with food reduces gastric mucosal damage, making this statement incorrect for patient safety.

Choice C reason: Aspirin is not safe with all medications, as it interacts with anticoagulants, NSAIDs, or corticosteroids, increasing bleeding risk. It also affects drugs like methotrexate by altering renal clearance. Drug interactions are common, requiring careful review of concurrent medications, making this statement misleading and unsafe.

Choice D reason: Moderate alcohol consumption with aspirin is not safe, as both irritate the gastric mucosa, increasing the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Aspirin’s antiplatelet effect combined with alcohol’s mucosal damage heightens this risk, making this statement incorrect and potentially harmful for patient education.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin overdose, neutralizing heparin’s anticoagulant effect by binding to it, forming an inactive complex. This reverses excessive anticoagulation, reducing bleeding risk in patients with prolonged aPTT (e.g., 90 seconds), making it the appropriate treatment for heparin-induced bleeding.

Choice B reason: Vitamin E has no role in reversing heparin-induced bleeding. It is an antioxidant with potential antiplatelet effects, which could worsen bleeding. Heparin’s action, enhancing antithrombin to inhibit thrombin and factor Xa, is specifically countered by protamine sulfate, not vitamin E.

Choice C reason: Vitamin K reverses warfarin, not heparin, by restoring vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Heparin acts via antithrombin, independent of vitamin K, and its overdose causes bleeding correctable by protamine sulfate. Vitamin K is ineffective for heparin-related bleeding, making this incorrect.

Choice D reason: Potassium chloride treats hypokalemia, not heparin-induced bleeding. Heparin’s anticoagulant effect, prolonging aPTT, is unrelated to potassium levels. Administering potassium chloride would not address excessive anticoagulation or bleeding, making it irrelevant for managing heparin overdose complications.

A. Resistance of the pneumonia-causing bacteria to the drugs B. Large doses of antibiotics that kill normal vaginal flora C. The infection spreads from the lungs to the new site of infection D. An allergic reaction to the antibiotics

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Resistance of pneumonia-causing bacteria does not cause vaginal yeast infections. Resistance reduces antibiotic efficacy against the target pathogen, but yeast infections result from disruption of vaginal flora, allowing Candida overgrowth, not from bacterial resistance in the lungs.

Choice B reason: Antibiotics, especially broad-spectrum ones, kill normal vaginal flora like Lactobacillus, which maintain an acidic environment inhibiting Candida albicans. This disruption allows yeast overgrowth, causing vaginal candidiasis, a common side effect of antibiotic therapy for infections like pneumonia, requiring antifungal treatment.

Choice C reason: Pneumonia pathogens do not spread to cause vaginal yeast infections. Candida, a fungal organism, causes yeast infections due to flora imbalance, not bacterial spread from the lungs. Pneumonia and vaginal infections have distinct etiologies, making this an incorrect cause.

Choice D reason: An allergic reaction to antibiotics may cause rashes or anaphylaxis but not vaginal yeast infections. Yeast infections result from microbial imbalance, not immune-mediated hypersensitivity. Candida overgrowth is a microbial, not allergic, response to antibiotic-induced flora disruption.

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A nurse is caring for a patient who has been prescribed aspirin for the management of their chronic pain. The patient asks the nurse about potential side effects and precautions related to taking aspirin. Which of the following statements by the nurse is correct regarding the use of aspirin?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient on a heparin infusion has an aPTT of 90 and is showing signs of excessive bleeding. What prescription will the nurse anticipate administering?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

During antibiotic therapy for pneumonia, a female patient develops a vaginal yeast infection. What caused this?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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