A nurse is caring for a patient who is postoperative and receiving fentanyl via patient-controlled analgesia. The patient has a prescription for naloxone.
What is the purpose of naloxone?
To suppress respiratory secretions
To block the effects of opioids on the central nervous system
To treat nausea
To treat urinary retention
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Naloxone does not have any direct effect on respiratory secretions. It works by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and reversing the effects of opioids, such as respiratory depression.
While opioids can cause a decrease in respiratory secretions, this is not the primary reason for administering naloxone.
It is important to note that naloxone can actually worsen respiratory secretions in some patients, particularly those with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or other respiratory conditions.
Choice B rationale:
Naloxone is a medication that is specifically designed to block the effects of opioids on the central nervous system (CNS).
It is a competitive antagonist, which means that it binds to opioid receptors in the brain and prevents opioids from binding to those receptors.
This can reverse the effects of opioids, such as respiratory depression, sedation, and hypotension.
Naloxone is often used to treat opioid overdose, but it can also be used to prevent opioid-induced respiratory depression in patients who are receiving opioids for pain relief.
Choice C rationale:
Naloxone is not effective in treating nausea.
In fact, it can actually worsen nausea in some patients.
This is because naloxone can block the effects of opioids in the brain, and opioids can sometimes have a nausea-relieving effect.
Choice D rationale:
Naloxone is not effective in treating urinary retention.
Urinary retention is a common side effect of opioids, but it is not caused by the effects of opioids on the CNS. Urinary retention is typically caused by the effects of opioids on the bladder muscles.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
It is not necessary to remind a patient to avoid turning from side to side after femoral artery catheterization. Restricting movement in this way could actually increase the risk of complications such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
Early ambulation is generally encouraged to promote circulation and prevent blood clots.
Patients are typically allowed to turn and reposition themselves as needed for comfort, unless there are specific contraindications.
Choice B rationale:
Keeping the patient in a high-Fowler's position for 6 hours is not a standard recommendation following femoral artery catheterization.
The patient's position should be based on their individual needs and comfort level.
In some cases, a slight elevation of the head of the bed may be helpful to promote venous return, but prolonged high-Fowler's positioning is not necessary.
Choice C rationale:
Passive range-of-motion exercises are not typically performed on the affected extremity immediately following femoral artery catheterization.
This is because there is a risk of dislodging the catheter or causing bleeding at the puncture site.
Once the catheter has been removed and the puncture site has healed, gentle range-of-motion exercises may be recommended to help maintain joint mobility.
Choice D rationale:
Checking pedal pulses every 15 minutes is essential to assess for adequate circulation to the lower extremities following femoral artery catheterization.
This is because there is a risk of complications such as thrombosis or embolism, which can compromise blood flow to the legs and feet.
If the pedal pulses are weak or absent, it could indicate a serious problem that requires immediate intervention.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Hypovolemic shock is a type of shock that occurs when there is a significant loss of blood or fluid volume, leading to decreased cardiac output and tissue perfusion. This can be caused by severe bleeding, dehydration, burns, or other conditions that result in fluid loss. While anaphylaxis can involve some fluid shifts, it is not primarily characterized by a loss of blood or fluid volume.
Key features of hypovolemic shock that distinguish it from anaphylactic shock include:
Prominent signs of dehydration: Dry skin and mucous membranes, decreased urine output, sunken eyes, and poor skin turgor.
Hemodynamic changes: Tachycardia, narrow pulse pressure, and cold extremities due to vasoconstriction to maintain blood pressure.
Laboratory findings: Elevated hematocrit and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels, indicating hemoconcentration and decreased kidney perfusion.
Choice B rationale:
Obstructive shock is a type of shock that occurs when there is an obstruction to blood flow, preventing adequate circulation to the body's tissues. This can be caused by conditions such as pulmonary embolism, cardiac tamponade, or tension pneumothorax. Anaphylaxis does not involve a physical obstruction to blood flow.
Key features of obstructive shock that distinguish it from anaphylactic shock include:
Evidence of the underlying obstruction: Jugular venous distension (cardiac tamponade), muffled heart sounds (cardiac tamponade), or respiratory distress (pulmonary embolism or tension pneumothorax).
Distinctive hemodynamic changes: Equalization of diastolic pressures between the right and left ventricles (cardiac tamponade).
Specific imaging findings: Enlarged cardiac silhouette on chest X-ray (pericardial effusion), filling defects in the pulmonary arteries on CT angiography (pulmonary embolism), or hyperexpanded lung fields with a deviated trachea on chest X-ray (tension pneumothorax).
Choice C rationale:
Cardiogenic shock is a type of shock that occurs when the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs. This can be caused by conditions such as heart attack, heart failure, or cardiomyopathy. Anaphylaxis does not primarily involve a failure of the heart's pumping function.
Key features of cardiogenic shock that distinguish it from anaphylactic shock include:
Evidence of heart failure: Pulmonary edema, elevated jugular venous pressure, and a third heart sound (S3 gallop).
Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes: ST-segment elevation or depression, Q waves, or other signs of myocardial ischemia or infarction.
Elevated cardiac enzymes: Troponin and creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) levels, indicating heart muscle damage.
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