A nurse is caring for a postpartum client who arrives at the clinic for her follow-up appointment 4 weeks after delivery.
The client is asking about birth control options.
What contraception option would you recommend as being the most reliable?
A male condom.
Vaginal ring.
Hormonal implant.
An oral contraceptive.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Male condoms are effective in preventing pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections, but their reliability can be compromised by improper use or breakage.
Choice B rationale
Vaginal rings provide hormonal contraception and are effective, but they may be less reliable compared to implants due to potential for incorrect use.
Choice C rationale
Hormonal implants are highly reliable because they provide continuous contraception over an extended period (up to 3-5 years) with minimal user intervention.
Choice D rationale
Oral contraceptives are effective when taken correctly, but their reliability can be reduced by missed doses or incorrect use.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Hyperbilirubinemia presents with jaundice (yellowing of the skin and eyes) and is caused by excess bilirubin in the blood. It doesn't typically involve a high-pitched cry, increased muscle tone, or projectile vomiting.
Choice B rationale
Neonatal abstinence syndrome occurs in newborns exposed to addictive opiate drugs while in the mother’s womb. Symptoms include high-pitched crying, increased muscle tone, yawning, poor feeding with vomiting, and tachypnea due to drug withdrawal.
Choice C rationale
Respiratory distress syndrome is primarily characterized by breathing difficulties, including rapid, shallow breathing and a grunting sound. Symptoms do not typically include high-pitched cry or projectile vomiting.
Choice D rationale
Necrotizing enterocolitis involves severe inflammation and necrosis of the intestines. Symptoms include abdominal distension, vomiting bile, bloody stools, and apnea but not a high-pitched cry or increased muscle tone.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"C"}
Explanation
Based on the provided information:
- Boggy fundus: This indicates uterine atony, which is a primary cause of postpartum hemorrhage. Addressing this immediately is crucial to prevent excessive bleeding.
- Heavy lochia with small clots: This further supports the concern for postpartum hemorrhage, necessitating prompt attention to assess and manage the bleeding.
Therefore, the nurse should first address the client's Fundus (Option A) followed by the client's Lochia (Option C).
So, the completed sentence would be:
"The nurse should first address the client's Fundus followed by the client's Lochia."
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