A nurse is collecting a blood phenylketonuria (PKU) test for a newborn prior to discharge. The newborn's guardian asks the nurse what a positive PKU test would mean.
Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
A positive finding indicates the inability to metabolize galactose.
A positive finding indicates the infant will have a slow metabolism.
A positive finding indicates an inability to metabolize certain amino acids.
A positive finding indicates an increased risk for neurologic anomalies.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
A positive phenylketonuria (PKU) test indicates an inability to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine, not galactose. Galactosemia is a separate metabolic disorder characterized by the body's inability to break down galactose, a sugar found in milk. Both are inborn errors of metabolism, but their biochemical pathways and dietary interventions differ significantly.
Choice B rationale
A positive PKU test does not indicate a slow metabolism in general. Instead, it specifically points to a deficiency in the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH), which is necessary for converting phenylalanine into tyrosine. This enzymatic defect leads to an accumulation of phenylalanine in the blood and tissues, which can become neurotoxic if untreated.
Choice C rationale
A positive finding for phenylketonuria (PKU) signifies a genetic disorder where the body lacks or has insufficient amounts of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase. This enzyme is crucial for metabolizing the essential amino acid phenylalanine into tyrosine. Without proper enzyme function, phenylalanine accumulates in the blood, leading to neurotoxic effects if a specialized diet is not initiated promptly.
Choice D rationale
A positive PKU finding, if left untreated, directly leads to severe intellectual disability and other neurological problems due to the accumulation of phenylalanine, which is toxic to the developing brain. Therefore, it indicates an increased risk for neurologic anomalies if the condition is not managed through a strict low-phenylalanine diet from early infancy. .
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Screening for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) prior to IUD placement is essential to reduce the risk of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). The insertion process can introduce bacteria from the cervix or vagina into the uterine cavity, increasing infection risk if an STI is present. Guidelines recommend screening high-risk patients or those with recent STI history. Identifying infections before insertion allows treatment, preventing serious reproductive complications, including infertility.
Choice B rationale: Most intrauterine devices (IUDs) have a lifespan longer than 2 years; copper IUDs last up to 10 years, and hormonal IUDs typically last between 3 and 7 years depending on the type. Replacing the device every 2 years is unnecessary and not evidence-based. Premature removal or replacement increases risk of procedure-related complications without added contraceptive benefit.
Choice C rationale: Irregular spotting or breakthrough bleeding during the first few months after IUD insertion is common due to endometrial adjustment to the foreign body and hormonal changes (for hormonal IUDs). This occurs as the endometrial lining remodels, and bleeding usually decreases with time. Patient education about this transient effect improves adherence and reduces anxiety related to unexpected bleeding.
Choice D rationale: There is no contraindication to tampon use while an IUD is in place. Tampons do not interfere with IUD function or position. Although some clinicians advise caution initially post-insertion to prevent infection, scientific evidence does not support a permanent restriction on tampon use during menstruation after proper healing.
Choice E rationale: Signing informed consent before IUD insertion is legally and ethically required. It ensures the client understands benefits, risks, potential complications (such as expulsion or perforation), and alternative contraceptive methods. This process protects patient autonomy and supports shared decision-making, critical components of safe clinical practice.
Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"B"},"B":{"answers":"A"},"C":{"answers":"A"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"A"},"F":{"answers":"A"},"G":{"answers":"B"}}
Explanation
Placement of an internal fetal spiral electrode is contraindicated because it requires ruptured membranes and no active vaginal bleeding. In cases of antepartum bleeding, especially without rupture of membranes, it increases infection risk and fetal injury.
Laboratory testing (CBC, blood type, Rh factor, coagulation studies) is anticipated to evaluate maternal blood loss, anemia, blood type compatibility, and coagulation status. These are essential for managing bleeding risk and potential transfusions.
IV fluids are anticipated to maintain maternal hemodynamic stability and manage possible blood loss, preventing hypovolemia and hypotension.
Abdominal ultrasound is anticipated for placental localization, fetal wellbeing assessment, and to differentiate causes of bleeding (placenta previa vs. abruption).
Betamethasone administration is anticipated at 30 weeks to accelerate fetal lung maturity in case of preterm delivery.
Continuous fetal heart rate (FHR) monitoring is essential to assess fetal status and detect hypoxia or distress promptly.
Digital cervical exam is contraindicated due to risk of exacerbating bleeding and infection in the presence of unknown placental position or bleeding source.
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