A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for a client who has COPD. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Instruct the client to use pursed-lip breathing.
Plan to have the client lay down for 1 hr after meals.
Restrict the client’s fluid intake to less than 1 L/day.
Encourage the client to use the upper chest for respiration.
The Correct Answer is A
Pursed-lip breathing is a technique that helps to slow down the breathing rate and keep the airways open longer. This improves gas exchange and reduces the work of breathing. Pursed-lip breathing also helps to prevent air trapping and hyperinflation of the lungs, which are common complications of COPD.
Choice B is wrong because laying down for 1 hour after meals can increase the pressure on the diaphragm and make breathing more difficult. It can also increase the risk of aspiration and reflux.
Choice C is wrong because restricting the client’s fluid intake to less than 1 L/day can lead to dehydration and thickening of secretions, which can obstruct the airways and impair gas exchange. Fluid intake should be adequate to maintain hydration and thin secretions.
Choice D is wrong because using the upper chest for respiration is a sign of inefficient breathing and respiratory distress.
It can increase the oxygen demand and cause fatigue. The client should be encouraged to use the diaphragm and abdominal muscles for respiration, which are more efficient and reduce the work of breathing.
Normal ranges for oxygen saturation are 95% to 100%, for arterial blood gas pH are 7.35 to 7.45, for PaCO2 are 35 to 45 mmHg, for PaO2 are 80 to 100 mmHg, and for HCO3 are 22 to 26 mEq/L.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is an example of secondary prevention, which is the action taken to stop the progress of the disease at the initial stage and prevent complications. An echocardiogram can help diagnose the severity and cause of heart failure and guide the treatment plan.
A client who has a family history of breast cancer and is scheduled for a mammogram is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention is early detection of a disease before it progresses. Secondary prevention can include screenings and other forms of diagnostic tests.
This is an example of tertiary prevention, which is the action taken to stop the progress of the disease at the initial stage and prevent complication. An echocardiogram can help diagnose the severity and cause of heart failure and guide the treatment plan.
Choice C is wrong because it is not an example of any level of prevention.
A client who is asymptomatic is not scheduled for a series of tests because there is no indication of any disease or risk factor.
Choice D is wrong because it is an example of primary prevention, which is the action taken to prevent the development of disease.
A client who is scheduled to receive an influenza vaccination is protected from getting infected by the virus and developing flu-related complications.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
McBurney’s point is located one-third of the distance from the right anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus. This is where the base of the appendix is attached to the cecum, which is part of the large intestine. When the appendix becomes inflamed or infected, it causes pain in this area.
Choice A is wrong because the left lower quadrant is where the sigmoid colon and part of the small intestine are located.
These organs are not related to appendicitis.
Choice B is wrong because the left upper quadrant is where the stomach, spleen, and part of the pancreas are located.
These organs are also not related to appendicitis.
Choice C is wrong because the right upper quadrant is where the liver, gallbladder, and part of the small intestine are located. These organs can cause pain in this area if they have problems, but not appendicitis
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