A nurse is discussing antidepressant therapy with a provider. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as being a candidate for antidepressant therapy?

A client who has decreased serotonin levels.

A client who has decreased cortisol levels.

A client who has elevated dopamine levels.

A client who has elevated thyroid levels.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: Decreased serotonin levels are linked to depression, as serotonin regulates mood in the brain’s limbic system. Antidepressants like SSRIs increase serotonin, alleviating low mood and anhedonia, making this client a prime candidate for therapy to address neurochemical imbalances in depression.
Choice B reason: Decreased cortisol is not directly tied to depression requiring antidepressants. Cortisol dysregulation may occur in stress disorders, but antidepressants target serotonin or norepinephrine, not adrenal function, making this client less suitable for antidepressant therapy based on this imbalance.
Choice C reason: Elevated dopamine is linked to schizophrenia or mania, not depression. Antidepressants target serotonin or norepinephrine, not dopamine. This client may need antipsychotics or mood stabilizers, not antidepressants, as dopamine excess does not indicate depressive pathology requiring such therapy.
Choice D reason: Elevated thyroid levels suggest hyperthyroidism, mimicking anxiety, not depression. Antidepressants are not indicated, as treatment targets thyroid function. Depression may coexist, but thyroid correction is prioritized, making this client unsuitable for primary antidepressant therapy based on this finding.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Dry cough is not associated with sertraline, an SSRI affecting serotonin pathways. Cough is linked to ACE inhibitors via bradykinin accumulation, not SSRIs, which cause neurological or gastrointestinal side effects. Including this misinforms the client about sertraline’s actual adverse effect profile.
Choice B reason: Increased urinary frequency is not a common sertraline side effect. SSRIs may cause urinary retention due to anticholinergic effects, but frequent urination is linked to diuretics or diabetes. Sertraline’s effects focus on serotonin-mediated mood changes, not bladder function alterations.
Choice C reason: Excessive sweating is a recognized sertraline adverse effect, driven by serotonin’s influence on autonomic sweat gland regulation. This hyperhidrosis, common in SSRI therapy, affects patient comfort and adherence, requiring education to prepare clients for this side effect during depression treatment.
Choice D reason: Metallic taste is not linked to sertraline. It occurs with antibiotics or chemotherapy agents due to oral mucosa irritation. Sertraline’s side effects include nausea or insomnia, driven by serotonin modulation, not gustatory changes, making this an incorrect inclusion in teaching.

A. Subdural hematoma B. Hyperthyroidism C. Renal calculi D. Diabetes mellitus

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: A subdural hematoma increases complication risk during electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) due to elevated intracranial pressure. ECT-induced seizures can worsen bleeding or cause herniation, posing significant neurological risks. This condition requires careful evaluation, making it the critical risk factor for complications.
Choice B reason: Hyperthyroidism may increase heart rate or metabolic demand but is not a primary risk for ECT complications. With proper management, it poses minimal risk compared to intracranial issues, so this is not the most concerning condition, making it incorrect.
Choice C reason: Renal calculi do not directly impact ECT safety, as they are unrelated to neurological or cardiovascular risks during seizures. This condition is manageable and not a significant complication risk, so it is incorrect for this scenario.
Choice D reason: Diabetes mellitus requires monitoring during ECT due to fasting or medication effects, but it is not a primary risk for complications. With proper glucose management, risks are minimal, so this is incorrect compared to a subdural hematoma’s impact.

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A nurse is discussing antidepressant therapy with a provider. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as being a candidate for antidepressant therapy?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the adverse effects of sertraline. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is providing care for a client who is scheduled for electroconvulsive therapy. Which of the following conditions should the nurse identify as an increased risk for complications?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is reviewing the BUN result of a client who is taking cyclosporine following a kidney transplant. Which of the following laboratory studies should the nurse recognize as another renal function study that should be monitored?

A nurse is caring for a newly admitted client who has bacterial meningitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

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