A nurse is discussing antidepressant therapy with a provider. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as being a candidate for antidepressant therapy?

A client who has decreased serotonin levels.

A client who has decreased cortisol levels.

A client who has elevated dopamine levels.

A client who has elevated thyroid levels.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: Decreased serotonin levels are linked to depression, as serotonin regulates mood in the brain’s limbic system. Antidepressants like SSRIs increase serotonin, alleviating low mood and anhedonia, making this client a prime candidate for therapy to address neurochemical imbalances in depression.
Choice B reason: Decreased cortisol is not directly tied to depression requiring antidepressants. Cortisol dysregulation may occur in stress disorders, but antidepressants target serotonin or norepinephrine, not adrenal function, making this client less suitable for antidepressant therapy based on this imbalance.
Choice C reason: Elevated dopamine is linked to schizophrenia or mania, not depression. Antidepressants target serotonin or norepinephrine, not dopamine. This client may need antipsychotics or mood stabilizers, not antidepressants, as dopamine excess does not indicate depressive pathology requiring such therapy.
Choice D reason: Elevated thyroid levels suggest hyperthyroidism, mimicking anxiety, not depression. Antidepressants are not indicated, as treatment targets thyroid function. Depression may coexist, but thyroid correction is prioritized, making this client unsuitable for primary antidepressant therapy based on this finding.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Calcium gluconate IV reverses magnesium sulfate toxicity, which causes respiratory depression or arrhythmias due to excessive magnesium. Calcium restores neuromuscular and cardiac function by competing with magnesium, preventing life-threatening complications like respiratory arrest in preeclampsia management.
Choice B reason: Positioning supine is inappropriate, as it does not address magnesium toxicity and may worsen respiration in preeclampsia. Semi-Fowler’s position optimizes breathing, while toxicity requires pharmacological reversal with calcium gluconate, not positional changes, to manage life-threatening symptoms effectively.
Choice C reason: IV dextrose is irrelevant for magnesium toxicity, which affects neuromuscular function, not glucose levels. Dextrose treats hypoglycemia, not applicable here. Magnesium overdose requires calcium to counteract effects, making dextrose an ineffective intervention in preeclampsia-related toxicity management.
Choice D reason: Methylergonovine, a uterotonic, is contraindicated in preeclampsia, as it increases blood pressure, risking hypertensive crisis. It treats postpartum hemorrhage, not magnesium toxicity, which requires calcium gluconate to reverse neuromuscular depression, ensuring safety in preeclampsia management.

A. Inability to concentrate B. Polydipsia C. Tremors D. Acetone breath odor E. Diaphoresis

Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]

Explanation

Choice A reason: Inability to concentrate is a common symptom of hypoglycemia in type 1 diabetes, as low blood glucose impairs brain function, leading to confusion and difficulty focusing. This neuroglycopenic symptom results from insufficient glucose for cerebral energy, making it a critical indicator requiring prompt intervention like glucose administration.
Choice B reason: Polydipsia is associated with hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia, in type 1 diabetes. It results from osmotic diuresis due to high blood glucose, causing dehydration and thirst. This symptom does not indicate low blood sugar, making it incorrect for identifying hypoglycemia in this scenario.
Choice C reason: Tremors are a hallmark of hypoglycemia, caused by the sympathetic nervous system’s response to low blood glucose, triggering catecholamine release. This leads to shakiness, a common adrenergic symptom, signaling the need for immediate glucose to restore normal levels, making it a correct indicator.
Choice D reason: Acetone breath odor is linked to diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), a complication of hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia. It results from ketone production during fat metabolism in uncontrolled diabetes. This finding is irrelevant to low blood sugar, making it incorrect for this scenario.
Choice E reason: Diaphoresis, or excessive sweating, is a classic hypoglycemia symptom due to autonomic activation from low blood glucose. The body releases adrenaline, causing sweating as a stress response. This reliable indicator prompts urgent treatment to prevent severe complications, making it a correct choice.

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A nurse is discussing antidepressant therapy with a provider. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as being a candidate for antidepressant therapy?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. The nurse discontinues the magnesium sulfate after the client displays toxicity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. The client reports that she is not feeling well. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is hypoglycemic? (Select all that apply)

Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]

Explanation

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