A nurse is discussing informed consent with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the information?
"A client must sign an Against Medical Advice form if he withdraws consent."
"A client can withdraw consent at any time after signing the informed consent form."
"A client who is involuntarily admitted to a mental health unit cannot withdraw consent for treatment.
"A client must provide a written refusal for a procedure for which he has already signed an informed consent."
The Correct Answer is B
A. "A client must sign an Against Medical Advice form if he withdraws consent.": An Against Medical Advice (AMA) form is specifically used when a client chooses to leave a healthcare facility against medical advice, not when they withdraw consent for a procedure. Withdrawing consent does not require an AMA form and follows a separate legal and ethical process.
B. "A client can withdraw consent at any time after signing the informed consent form.": Clients maintain the right to autonomy throughout their care, including the right to withdraw consent at any point before or during a procedure. Signing the form does not waive their right to change their mind, and healthcare providers must respect this decision without penalizing the client.
C. "A client who is involuntarily admitted to a mental health unit cannot withdraw consent for treatment.": Even clients who are involuntarily admitted retain certain rights, including the right to refuse specific treatments unless they are legally deemed incompetent or pose an imminent threat. Involuntary admission does not mean automatic consent to all treatments.
D. "A client must provide a written refusal for a procedure for which he has already signed an informed consent.": Clients can verbally withdraw consent at any time; a written refusal is not legally required. While documentation of the client's decision is necessary for the medical record, insisting on a written refusal is not a legal prerequisite for withdrawal of consent.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Temperature of 37.2° C (99.0° F): A temperature of 37.2° C is within the normal range and does not necessarily indicate infection. Mild temperature elevations are common in the immediate postoperative period due to inflammatory responses rather than infection, which typically presents with more significant fever.
B. Elevated WBC count: An elevated white blood cell (WBC) count is a classic and early indicator of infection. It reflects the body's immune response to a bacterial or viral invasion, and postoperative infections often present with leukocytosis, making it a key finding to monitor closely.
C. Pain rating of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10: Moderate pain is expected after surgery and does not, by itself, suggest infection. Postoperative pain should be assessed in context with other symptoms like redness, swelling, or drainage; pain alone, especially if stable, is not definitive for infection.
D. Increased urinary output: Increased urinary output is generally a positive sign of good kidney perfusion and hydration status. A decrease, not an increase, in urinary output would be more concerning postoperatively and could suggest complications, but not necessarily infection.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E","F","G"]
Explanation
- Administer betamethasone: Betamethasone is administered to pregnant clients at risk of preterm delivery to promote fetal lung maturity. Given the client's gestational age of 31 weeks and signs of severe preeclampsia, administering corticosteroids is critical to prepare for potential early delivery.
- Monitor intake and output every hour: Severe preeclampsia can impair renal function, leading to decreased urine output and worsening fluid retention. Hourly monitoring of intake and output helps detect early signs of renal compromise and fluid overload, both of which require immediate intervention.
- Assist RN with performing a vaginal examination every 12 hr: Vaginal examinations are avoided in cases of severe preeclampsia unless absolutely necessary because they can stimulate uterine contractions or introduce infection. Therefore, routinely assisting every 12 hours with vaginal exams is not appropriate in this client's plan of care.
- Obtain a 24-hr urine specimen: A 24-hour urine collection assesses the degree of proteinuria and provides a clearer diagnostic picture of the severity of preeclampsia. Quantifying protein excretion helps guide clinical management and decisions about timing of delivery.
- Provide a low-stimulation environment: A calm, quiet environment minimizes the risk of seizure activity in clients with severe preeclampsia. Reducing auditory, visual, and environmental stimulation is a standard preventative measure to decrease neurological irritability.
- Give antihypertensive medication: Severe hypertension must be promptly treated to prevent complications like stroke, placental abruption, and progression to eclampsia. Administering antihypertensive therapy helps stabilize maternal blood pressure and protects both maternal and fetal health.
- Maintain bedrest: Bedrest helps reduce blood pressure and physical stress, promoting better perfusion to the placenta. Although strict bedrest is controversial long-term, short-term bedrest is often used in severe preeclampsia management while stabilization measures are implemented.
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