A nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of interventions for a client who has postpartum hemorrhage due to retained placental fragments.
Which of the following outcomes indicates that the interventions are successful?
The client reports minimal cramping and discomfort
The client has a firm and midline uterus at the umbilicus
The client passes small clots with moderate lochia rubra
The client has a pulse rate of 100 beats/min and a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
The Correct Answer is B
The client has a firm and midline uterus at the umbilicus. This indicates that the interventions for postpartum hemorrhage due to retained placental fragments are successful because the uterus has contracted and expelled the fragments, and there is no excessive bleeding.
Choice A is wrong because minimal cramping and discomfort are not specific signs of successful interventions for postpartum hemorrhage.
They may also occur in normal postpartum recovery.
Choice C is wrong because passing small clots with moderate lochia rubra may indicate that there are still some retained placental fragments or that the uterus is not contracting adequately.
Choice D is wrong because a pulse rate of 100 beats/min and a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg are not normal ranges for an adult. A pulse rate of 60 to 100 beats/min and a blood pressure of less than 120/80 mm Hg are considered normal. A high pulse rate and a low blood pressure may indicate hypovolemia or shock due to blood loss.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Oxytocin is a uterotonic medication that stimulates uterine contractions and reduces bleeding.It is the most effective intervention for preventing and treating postpartum hemorrhage caused by uterine atony.
Uterine massage can also help to improve uterine tone and expel clots.
Choice B) Administering magnesium sulfate is wrong because magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in patients with preeclampsia or eclampsia, not to control bleeding.
Choice C) Administering heparin is wrong because heparin is an anticoagulant that prevents blood clotting.
It is used to treat or prevent thromboembolic disorders, not to stop bleeding.
Choice D) Administering insulin is wrong because insulin is used to lower blood glucose levels in patients with diabetes mellitus, not to manage hemorrhage.
Normal blood loss after vaginal delivery is less than 500 mL and after cesarean delivery is less than 1000 mL.
Postpartum hemorrhage is defined as blood loss of at least 100
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Urine output of 40 mL/hr indicates an improvement in the client’s condition.According to the MSF Medical Guidelines, the objective of resuscitation in postpartum hemorrhage is to maintain a urine output of at least 30 mL/hour.
A urine output of 40 mL/hr suggests that the client has adequate fluid replacement and blood transfusion therapy.
Choice B is wrong because a pulse rate of 110 beats/min is still high and indicates tachycardia.
Tachycardia is a sign of hypovolemia and shock due to blood loss.The normal pulse rate for an adult is 60 to 100 beats/min.
Choice C is wrong because a hematocrit level of 32% is low and indicates anemia.
Anemia is a complication of postpartum hemorrhage due to reduced red blood cell count.The normal hematocrit level for women is 36% to 48%.
Choice D is wrong because a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg is low and indicates hypotension.
Hypotension is a sign of hypovolemia and shock due to blood loss.The normal blood pressure for an adult is 120/80 mm Hg.
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