A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation and has pre-term labor.
Which of the following results indicates an infection that can trigger pre-term labor?
White blood cell count of 12,000/mm3
Hemoglobin level of 11 g/dL
Platelet count of 250,000/mm3
Blood glucose level of 90 mg/dL
The Correct Answer is A
A white blood cell count of 12,000/mm3 indicates an infection that can trigger pre-term labor. The normal range for white blood cell count in pregnancy is 5.7-15.0×10 9 /L, which is equivalent to 5,700-15,000/mm3.
A count above this range suggests an inflammatory response to an infection.
Choice B is wrong because a hemoglobin level of 11 g/dL is within the normal range for pregnancy, which is 10-14 g/dL.
Choice C is wrong because a platelet count of 250,000/mm3 is within the normal range for pregnancy, which is 150,000-400,000/mm3.
Choice D is wrong because a blood glucose level of 90 mg/dL is within the normal range for pregnancy, which is 70-110 mg/dL.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Betamethasone is a corticosteroid that is given to pregnant women who are at risk of preterm labor to improve neonatal outcomes.Betamethasone stimulates the production of surfactant, a substance that lubricates the lungs and prevents them from collapsing after birth.This reduces the risk of respiratory distress syndrome, a common complication of preterm birth.
Choice B is wrong because betamethasone does not decrease the risk of infection in the newborn.In fact, it may increase the risk of maternal and neonatal infections by suppressing the immune system.
Choice C is wrong because betamethasone does not increase blood glucose levels in the newborn.However, it may cause transient hyperglycemia in the mother, which should be monitored and treated if necessary.
Choice D is wrong because betamethasone does not decrease the risk of bleeding in the newborn.It may increase the risk of intraventricular hemorrhage, a type of bleeding in the brain, if given before 24 weeks of gestation.Therefore, it should be used with caution in this population and only after a family’s decision regarding resuscitation.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Assess fetal heart rate and activity.
The nurse should identify that a client who reports a sudden gush of fluid from her vagina is at risk forpremature rupture of membranes (PROM), which can lead toinfection,cord prolapse, andfetal distress.Therefore, the priority action is to assess the fetal heart rate and activity to monitor for signs of hypoxia or distress.
Choice B is wrong because performing a nitrazine test on the fluid is not the first action.A nitrazine test can confirm the presence of amniotic fluid by detecting its alkaline pH, but it is not as urgent as assessing the fetal well-being.
Choice C is wrong because administering oxytocin (Pitocin) IV infusion is contraindicated in this situation.Oxytocin is used to induce or augment labor, but it can causeuterine hyperstimulation,fetal distress, andplacental abruptionif given to a client who has PROM.
Choice D is wrong because placing the client in Trendelenburg position is not recommended for a client who has PROM.Trendelenburg position can increase the risk ofcord prolapseandaspirationin this situation.
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