A nurse is teaching a client who is at 25 weeks of gestation and has pre-term labor about the purpose and side effects of magnesium sulfate therapy.
Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
“This medication will help prevent seizures in case I develop preeclampsia.”
“This medication will help mature my baby’s lungs in case he is born early.”
“This medication will help relax my uterus and stop contractions.”
“This medication will help lower my blood pressure in case it gets too high.”
The Correct Answer is C
This medication will help relax my uterus and stop contractions.
Magnesium sulfate is a tocolytic, a medication used to suppress uterine contractions and delay preterm delivery. The exact mechanism through which magnesium sulfate inhibits contractions is unknown, but researchers believe it likely works by lowering calcium levels in the uterine muscles.
Choice A is wrong because magnesium sulfate is not used to prevent seizures in case of preeclampsia.
Preeclampsia is a condition characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine during pregnancy. Magnesium sulfate may be used to treat seizures if they occur with eclampsia, which is a severe complication of preeclampsia.
Choice B is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not help mature the baby’s lungs in case of preterm birth.
Magnesium sulfate may have some neuroprotective effects for the baby, but it does not affect lung development. Steroids are usually given to pregnant women at risk of preterm delivery to help accelerate fetal lung maturation.
Choice D is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not lower blood pressure in case it gets too high.
Magnesium sulfate may have some vasodilatory effects, but it is not used as an antihypertensive agent. Other medications, such as hydralazine or labetalol, are used to treat high blood pressure during pregnancy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Assess fetal heart rate and activity.
The nurse should identify that a client who reports a sudden gush of fluid from her vagina is at risk forpremature rupture of membranes (PROM), which can lead toinfection,cord prolapse, andfetal distress.Therefore, the priority action is to assess the fetal heart rate and activity to monitor for signs of hypoxia or distress.
Choice B is wrong because performing a nitrazine test on the fluid is not the first action.A nitrazine test can confirm the presence of amniotic fluid by detecting its alkaline pH, but it is not as urgent as assessing the fetal well-being.
Choice C is wrong because administering oxytocin (Pitocin) IV infusion is contraindicated in this situation.Oxytocin is used to induce or augment labor, but it can causeuterine hyperstimulation,fetal distress, andplacental abruptionif given to a client who has PROM.
Choice D is wrong because placing the client in Trendelenburg position is not recommended for a client who has PROM.Trendelenburg position can increase the risk ofcord prolapseandaspirationin this situation.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Amniotic fluid index of 4 cm indicates oligohydramnios, which means too little amniotic fluid.This can cause fetal growth restriction, cord compression, and congenital anomalies.
Choice B is wrong because amniotic fluid index of 8 cm is within the normal range of 5 to 25 cm.
Choice C is wrong because amniotic fluid index of 12 cm is also within the normal range and close to the median value of 14 cm.
Choice D is wrong because amniotic fluid index of 16 cm is also within the normal range and does not indicate oligohydramnios.
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