A nurse is leading a therapy session for a group of adolescent clients. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an adaptive use of ego defense mechanisms?

"Since injuring my knee. I've decided to become the team manager."

"Since my mom died, I focus all my attention on my grades."

“I didn't tell the teacher about the bullying because it wouldn't have changed anything."

"I'm not even going to think about writing that thesis paper until after prom."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. "Since injuring my knee, I've decided to become the team manager."
Option A represents an adaptive use of the ego defense mechanism known as sublimation. Sublimation is a process in which a person channels potentially negative or harmful impulses or feelings into more socially acceptable and constructive activities. In this case, the adolescent with the injured knee is using the opportunity to become the team manager, which is a positive and constructive way to stay engaged with the team despite the setback of the injury.

B. "Since my mom died, I focus all my attention on my grades."
This is an example of reaction formation, a defense mechanism where someone overemphasizes the opposite of their true feelings. In this case, the individual might be hiding or avoiding their grief by focusing on grades.

C. "I didn't tell the teacher about the bullying because it wouldn't have changed anything."
This is an example of rationalization, where the individual provides a logical-sounding but potentially inaccurate explanation for their actions. It can be a defense mechanism to justify or make more acceptable one's choices.

D. "I'm not even going to think about writing that thesis paper until after prom."
This is an example of procrastination or avoidance, which is not an ego defense mechanism but a coping or time-management strategy. It doesn't represent an adaptive use of a defense mechanism in this context.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Reduced frequency of panic attacks:
ECT is not primarily used to treat panic attacks. It is more commonly employed for severe mood disorders such as major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. While ECT might indirectly affect anxiety symptoms, its main focus is on mood stabilization and improvement of depressive symptoms.

B. Decreased feelings of hopelessness:
This is the correct choice. Decreased feelings of hopelessness, often accompanied by improved mood and reduced suicidal thoughts, indicate the effectiveness of ECT in treating severe depression. ECT is known for its rapid and significant impact on mood, leading to improvements in feelings of hopelessness and despair, which are common symptoms of severe depression.

C. Reduced frequency of seizures:
ECT itself induces controlled seizures under anesthesia as part of the treatment process. The goal of ECT is not to reduce seizures but to target specific mental health conditions, particularly severe mood disorders. ECT is not indicated for managing epilepsy or reducing the frequency of seizures related to neurological disorders.

D. Decreased fear of heights:
ECT is not a treatment specifically designed to address phobias or fear-related disorders such as acrophobia (fear of heights). It is primarily used for severe mental health conditions, especially mood disorders. While an individual's overall anxiety might improve with successful ECT treatment, its direct effect on specific phobias like fear of heights is not a primary indication for the therapy.

A. Liraglutide 0.6 mg subcutaneously daily B. Selegiline 6 mg transdermal patch daily C. Aripiprazole 400 mg IM every 4 weeks D. Lithium 600 mg PO three times per day

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Liraglutide 0.6 mg subcutaneously daily:
Liraglutide is a medication used to treat type 2 diabetes and obesity. It works by regulating blood sugar levels and reducing appetite. It has no direct relevance to the treatment of schizophrenia or psychosis. Schizophrenia is a mental health disorder, and antipsychotic medications are typically used to manage its symptoms.

B. Selegiline 6 mg transdermal patch daily:
Selegiline is primarily used to treat Parkinson's disease by enhancing the effects of dopamine in the brain. It is not indicated for schizophrenia or psychosis. While dopamine dysregulation is involved in both Parkinson's disease and schizophrenia, the mechanisms and treatments are different. Antipsychotic medications, not selegiline, are used to manage psychosis in schizophrenia.

C. Aripiprazole 400 mg IM every 4 weeks:
This is the correct choice. Aripiprazole is an atypical antipsychotic medication commonly used to treat schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders. The intramuscular (IM) formulation provides extended release, making it suitable for clients who may have difficulty adhering to daily oral medications. It helps manage psychosis, a common symptom of schizophrenia.

D. Lithium 600 mg PO three times per day:
Lithium is a mood stabilizer commonly used to treat bipolar disorder by preventing or reducing the intensity of manic episodes. It is not a first-line treatment for schizophrenia or psychosis. Antipsychotic medications are the primary choice for managing the symptoms of psychosis in schizophrenia. Lithium is not typically used to address the hallucinations and delusions associated with schizophrenia.

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A nurse is leading a therapy session for a group of adolescent clients. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an adaptive use of ego defense mechanisms?

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Correct Answer is C

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