A nurse is observing an assistive personnel (AP) take a client's tympanic temperature.
Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as an indication that the AP understands how to perform the procedure?

The correct answer is choice B and C.

Choice A rationale:

Cervical insufficiency is a condition where the cervix begins to shorten and open too early during pregnancy, leading to premature birth or loss of an otherwise healthy pregnancy. However, the client’s symptoms do not indicate cervical insufficiency. There are no reports of lower abdominal pressure, mild pelvic cramps, or a change in vaginal discharge, which are common symptoms of cervical insufficiency.

Choice B rationale:

The client’s severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen, +3 pitting edema in bilateral lower extremities, and hyperactive reflexes (patellar reflex 4+) are indicative of severe preeclampsia. One of the complications of severe preeclampsia is seizures, also known as eclampsia. Therefore, the client is at risk for developing seizures.

Choice C rationale:

Placental abruption is a serious pregnancy complication in which the placenta detaches from the uterus prematurely. The client’s report of decreased fetal movement could be a sign of placental abruption. In addition, severe preeclampsia can increase the risk of placental abruption. Therefore, the client is at risk for developing placental abruption.

Choice D rationale:

Heart failure occurs when the heart can’t pump enough blood to meet the body’s needs. While preeclampsia can eventually affect many organ systems including the cardiovascular system, there are no immediate signs of heart failure in the client’s symptoms.

Choice E rationale:

Hypoglycemia refers to low blood sugar levels. The client’s symptoms do not suggest hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypoglycemia typically include confusion, dizziness, feeling shaky, hunger, headaches, irritability, pounding heart or irregular heartbeat, sweating, trembling or tremors, and weakness. In conclusion, based on the client’s symptoms and clinical presentation, she is at greatest risk for developing seizures (Choice B) and placental abruption (Choice C) due to severe preeclampsia.

Choice A rationale:

Sarcoptes scabiei is the causative agent of scabies, a contagious skin infestation. While scabies is a communicable disease, it is typically not a reportable disease to the state health department. Scabies is usually treated at the individual or community level, and reporting to the state health department is not required.

Choice B rationale:

Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the bacterium responsible for gonorrhea, a sexually transmitted infection. Gonorrhea is a notifiable disease, and healthcare providers are required to report cases of gonorrhea to the state health department. This is because gonorrhea is a significant public health concern due to its potential complications and the need for contact tracing and prevention.

Choice C rationale:

Human papillomavirus (HPV) is a very common sexually transmitted infection, but it is typically not a reportable disease to the state health department. HPV can lead to various health issues, including genital warts and certain types of cancer. However, reporting HPV cases is not a standard practice because it is highly prevalent and usually managed at the individual level through screening and vaccination programs.

Choice D rationale:

Impetigo contagiosa is a bacterial skin infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. While it is contagious, impetigo is not typically a reportable disease to the state health department. Like scabies, impetigo is usually managed at the individual or community level, and reporting is not a standard requirement.