A nurse is obtaining an oxygen saturation on a client.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Relocate the sensor every 8 hrs.
Wait 10 sec after placing the probe before obtaining the oxygen saturation reading.
Choose a finger with a capillary refill less than 2 sec.
Place the sensor probe on the same extremity as an electronic blood pressure cuff.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Relocating the sensor every 8 hours is not necessary when obtaining oxygen saturation readings unless there is a specific clinical reason to do so, such as skin irritation or poor perfusion at the sensor site. Frequent relocation can cause unnecessary disruption for the patient.
Choice B rationale:
Waiting 10 seconds after placing the probe before obtaining the oxygen saturation reading is not required. Modern pulse oximeters provide real-time readings, and there is no need to wait after placing the probe. The reading is usually stable within seconds.
Choice C rationale:
Choosing a finger with a capillary refill time of less than 2 seconds is an essential consideration when obtaining oxygen saturation readings. Capillary refill time is a measure of peripheral perfusion, and choosing a finger with good perfusion ensures accurate oxygen saturation measurements.
Choice D rationale:
Placing the sensor probe on the same extremity as an electronic blood pressure cuff is generally acceptable. However, it is crucial to ensure that the sensor does not interfere with the blood pressure cuff's function and that it is securely attached to the patient's finger for accurate readings.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Answer is: A, B, and C.Respiratory rate, oxygen saturation level, and heart rate are the three findings that require immediate follow-up. These findings indicate that the client is experiencing respiratory distress and possible complications of pneumonia, such as sepsis and cardiac arrhythmia. The client needs prompt intervention to improve oxygenation, stabilize the heart rhythm, and treat the infection.
- Statement D is wrong because the chronic health condition of the client (Parkinson’s disease) is not an acute problem that needs immediate attention. However, it is important to monitor the client’s tremors and medication regimen for Parkinson’s disease.
- Statement E is wrong because the current level of consciousness of the client (alert and oriented to self) is not abnormal or concerning. However, it is important to monitor the client’s mental status for any signs of confusion or agitation.
- Statement F is wrong because the tremors of the client are likely related to the Parkinson’s disease and not to the pneumonia. However, it is important to assess the severity and frequency of the tremors and provide comfort measures.
Normal ranges for the vital signs and arterial blood gas are as follows:
- Respiratory rate: 12 to 20 breaths per minute
- Oxygen saturation level: 95% to 100%
- Heart rate: 60 to 100 beats per minute
- Blood pressure: less than 120/80 mmHg
- Temperature: 36.5°C to 37.2°C
- Arterial blood gas: pH 7.35 to 7.45, PaO2 80 to 100 mmHg, PaCO2 35 to 45 mmHg, HCO3 22 to 26 mEq/L
Correct answer is: A, B, and C.
Choice A rationale: Respiratory rate is 28 breaths per minute and labored. This is above the normal range of 12 to 20 breaths per minute and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress. Respiratory distress can lead to hypoxia, tissue damage, and organ failure. Therefore, this finding requires immediate follow-up to improve the client’s oxygenation and ventilation.
Choice B rationale: Oxygen saturation level is 88% on room air. This is below the normal range of 95% to 100% and indicates that the client is hypoxemic. Hypoxemia can result from pneumonia, which causes inflammation and fluid accumulation in the alveoli, impairing gas exchange. Hypoxemia can also cause dysrhythmias, confusion, and cyanosis. Therefore, this finding requires immediate follow-up to administer supplemental oxygen and monitor the client’s response.
Choice C rationale: Heart rate is 110 beats per minute and irregular. This is above the normal range of 60 to 100 beats per minute and indicates that the client has tachycardia and atrial fibrillation. Tachycardia can result from hypoxia, fever, infection, dehydration, or anxiety. Atrial fibrillation is a type of cardiac arrhythmia that causes irregular and rapid contractions of the atria, reducing the cardiac output and increasing the risk of thromboembolism. Therefore, this finding requires immediate follow-up to identify and treat the underlying cause, stabilize the heart rhythm, and prevent complications.
Choice D rationale: Chronic health condition is Parkinson’s disease. This is not an acute problem that requires immediate follow-up. However, it is important to monitor the client’s tremors and medication regimen for Parkinson’s disease, as they can affect the client’s mobility, safety, and quality of life.
Choice E rationale: Current level of consciousness is alert and oriented to self. This is not abnormal or concerning. However, it is important to monitor the client’s mental status for any signs of confusion or agitation, as they can result from hypoxia, infection, or medication side effects.
Choice F rationale: Tremors are in both hands. This is likely related to the Parkinson’s disease and not to the pneumonia. However, it is important to assess the severity and frequency of the tremors and provide comfort measures, such as warm blankets, massage, or relaxation techniques.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The administration of Rh(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) is typically indicated for Rh-negative mothers who are carrying Rh-positive fetuses to prevent sensitization to Rh antigens. It is not directly related to the amniocentesis procedure. Therefore, this information is not necessary for the client undergoing an amniocentesis.
Choice B rationale:
This is the correct answer. Having an empty bladder is crucial during an amniocentesis procedure because a full bladder can obscure visualization of the fetus and the needle placement. It is essential for a successful and safe procedure. The nurse should instruct the client to empty their bladder before the test.
Choice C rationale:
The position during an amniocentesis is typically dorsal recumbent or semi-Fowler's position to allow for proper visualization of the fetus and needle placement. Lying on the left side is not a standard position for this procedure, so this information is incorrect and not necessary for the client.
Choice D rationale:
Drinking 50 grams of oral glucose is not a requirement for an amniocentesis procedure. This information is unrelated to the amniocentesis and can be confusing for the client. Therefore, it is not necessary to include this in the instructions.
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