A nurse is performing a nonstress test on a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has diabetes mellitus. The test reveals no accelerations of fetal heart rate for 20 min. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Perform vibroacoustic stimulation.
Place the client in the Trendelenburg position.
Conduct a vaginal exam.
Collect a specimen for an indirect Coombs' test.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Vibroacoustic stimulation is an appropriate action to perform during a nonstress test if there are no fetal heart rate accelerations. It involves using sound or vibration to stimulate the fetus, potentially eliciting the desired heart rate accelerations.
Choice B rationale:
Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is not indicated in this situation. It may not benefit the fetus and is not a standard intervention for nonreactive nonstress test results.
Choice C rationale:
Conducting a vaginal exam is not relevant to the situation described in the question. A nonreactive nonstress test does not require a vaginal exam.
Choice D rationale:
Collecting a specimen for an indirect Coombs test is not necessary for this scenario. The test result would not provide information relevant to the nonreactive nonstress test.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Amniotic fluid embolism is a rare but serious complication during labor or immediately after delivery, where amniotic fluid, fetal cells, hair, or other debris enter the mother's bloodstream and cause a severe reaction. While it may present with sudden and severe symptoms, such as hypotension and respiratory distress, it does not typically cause uterine rupture.
Choice B rationale:
Uterine rupture is a life-threatening emergency that can occur during labor, especially in women with previous uterine surgeries or trauma. The sudden, severe lower abdominal pain, drop in blood pressure, cool skin, and pallor could indicate internal bleeding and shock, which are consistent with uterine rupture. Prolonged bradycardia on the fetal heart rate tracing suggests fetal distress due to compromised blood flow.
Choice C rationale:
Umbilical cord prolapse is another obstetric emergency that occurs when the umbilical cord slips through the cervix and gets compressed during labor, leading to fetal distress. It may cause variable decelerations in fetal heart rate, but it does not explain the maternal symptoms described in the scenario, such as the sudden, severe lower abdominal pain, hypotension, cool skin, and pallor.
Choice D rationale:
Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, and it can lead to painless vaginal bleeding. While it can cause fetal distress, it does not explain the maternal symptoms like the sudden, severe lower abdominal pain, hypotension, cool skin, and pallor. Prolonged bradycardia on the fetal heart rate tracing is more suggestive of uterine rupture.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A client with placenta previa and a hematocrit of 36% should be monitored closely due to the risk of bleeding, but it is not an immediate priority compared to the client with hyperemesis gravidarum and a low sodium level.
Choice B rationale:
Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of morning sickness characterized by excessive vomiting, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. A sodium level of 110 mEq/L is dangerously low and requires immediate attention to correct the electrolyte disturbance and prevent further complications.
Choice C rationale:
A client with diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 5.8% is within a normal range, indicating good glycemic control. This client's condition can be managed on an outpatient basis and does not require urgent assessment compared to the others.
Choice D rationale:
A client with preeclampsia and a creatinine level of 1.1 mg/dL should be closely monitored, but it is not the priority over the client with hyperemesis gravidarum and severe electrolyte imbalance.
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