A nurse is monitoring a client who is undergoing a nonstress test at 35 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings requires intervention by the nurse?
An FHR that peaks 20 beats above the baseline.
Three uterine contractions within a 20-min period.
One acceleration of the FHR within a 20-min period.
Uterine contractions lasting 20 to 30 seconds each.
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is choice c. One acceleration of the FHR within a 20-min period.
Here's the rationale for each choice:
Choice A: Rationale: A non-stress test (NST) is supposed to assess fetal well-being by looking for accelerations in the fetal heart rate (FHR) in response to fetal movement. An FHR that peaks 20 beats above the baseline is a desirable finding in an NST, indicating good fetal reactivity.
Choice B: Rationale: While not typical during a standard NST, three uterine contractions within a 20-minute period might not necessarily require immediate intervention. However, the nurse should document it and notify the healthcare provider for further assessment, especially if the contractions are causing discomfort or if there are other concerning signs.
Choice C: Rationale: A single acceleration of the FHR within a 20-minute NST is considered non-reactive and may indicate fetal compromise. This finding requires further investigation by the healthcare provider, potentially including additional monitoring or interventions.
Choice D: Rationale: Uterine contractions lasting 20 to 30 seconds each are not a typical finding during an NST, but they may not necessarily be a cause for immediate concern unless they are causing the client pain or are accompanied by other concerning signs. The nurse should document the contractions and notify the healthcare provider.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Betamethasone is a corticosteroid used to enhance lung maturity in preterm infants and has no role in treating uterine atony.
Choice B rationale:
Hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication used to lower blood pressure and is not indicated for the management of uterine atony.
Choice C rationale:
Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication used to relax the uterus and delay preterm labour. It is not used to address uterine atony.
Choice D rationale:
Methylergonovine is a uterotonic medication commonly used to treat uterine atony by causing uterine contractions and controlling postpartum bleeding. It helps the uterus contract and prevents further blood loss.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Levothyroxine is not a medication used to treat gestational diabetes mellitus. Levothyroxine is a synthetic thyroid hormone used to treat hypothyroidism, which is a different medical condition.
Choice B rationale:
Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker primarily used to manage hypertension and angina. It is not indicated for the treatment of gestational diabetes mellitus.
Choice C rationale:
Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic medication used to treat conditions like schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. It has no role in the treatment of gestational diabetes mellitus.
Choice D rationale:
Glyburide is the correct medication to expect for administering to a client with gestational diabetes mellitus. Glyburide is an oral antidiabetic agent that helps lower blood glucose levels by increasing insulin secretion from the pancreas. It is often used when dietary and lifestyle modifications are not sufficient in managing gestational diabetes. However, it is essential to follow healthcare provider guidelines and closely monitor the client's blood glucose levels while on this medication. In some cases, insulin may be required if glyburide alone is inadequate in controlling blood sugar levels.
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