A nurse is performing an abdominal assessment as part of a client’s comprehensive physical examination. Which of the following is the final step the nurse should perform?

Percussion

Auscultation

Palpation

Inspection

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Percussion precedes palpation to assess abdominal resonance and organ size without altering bowel motility. Performing it last risks inaccurate findings, as palpation may stimulate peristalsis, changing resonance patterns. This sequence ensures reliable detection of abnormalities like organomegaly or fluid accumulation in the abdomen.
Choice B reason: Auscultation is done before palpation to capture natural bowel sounds. Manipulation during palpation can alter peristalsis, affecting auscultatory findings. Early auscultation ensures accurate detection of hypoactive or hyperactive bowel sounds, critical for diagnosing conditions like ileus or obstruction in abdominal assessments.
Choice C reason: Palpation is the final step, following inspection, auscultation, and percussion, to assess for tenderness or masses. This sequence prevents manipulation from altering earlier findings, ensuring accurate identification of abdominal abnormalities like peritonitis or organ enlargement, critical for a comprehensive physical examination.
Choice D reason: Inspection is the first step, providing a visual baseline of abdominal appearance, such as distension or scars. Performing it last misses initial cues guiding subsequent steps. Early inspection ensures no manipulation affects visual assessment, vital for identifying external signs of underlying abdominal pathology.

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Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]

Explanation

Choice A reason: Inability to concentrate is a common symptom of hypoglycemia in type 1 diabetes, as low blood glucose impairs brain function, leading to confusion and difficulty focusing. This neuroglycopenic symptom results from insufficient glucose for cerebral energy, making it a critical indicator requiring prompt intervention like glucose administration.
Choice B reason: Polydipsia is associated with hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia, in type 1 diabetes. It results from osmotic diuresis due to high blood glucose, causing dehydration and thirst. This symptom does not indicate low blood sugar, making it incorrect for identifying hypoglycemia in this scenario.
Choice C reason: Tremors are a hallmark of hypoglycemia, caused by the sympathetic nervous system’s response to low blood glucose, triggering catecholamine release. This leads to shakiness, a common adrenergic symptom, signaling the need for immediate glucose to restore normal levels, making it a correct indicator.
Choice D reason: Acetone breath odor is linked to diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), a complication of hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia. It results from ketone production during fat metabolism in uncontrolled diabetes. This finding is irrelevant to low blood sugar, making it incorrect for this scenario.
Choice E reason: Diaphoresis, or excessive sweating, is a classic hypoglycemia symptom due to autonomic activation from low blood glucose. The body releases adrenaline, causing sweating as a stress response. This reliable indicator prompts urgent treatment to prevent severe complications, making it a correct choice.

A. Pain level of 1 on a scale of 0 to 10 B. Oxygen saturation of 92% on room air C. Albumin level of 2.5 g/dL D. Body mass index of 22

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: A pain level of 1 on a 0-10 scale indicates well-controlled pain, which does not directly impair wound healing. Adequate pain management supports mobility and recovery, reducing stress responses that could delay healing. This finding is not a risk factor for delayed wound healing in post-surgical clients.
Choice B reason: An oxygen saturation of 92% on room air is slightly low but not critically hypoxic. Wound healing requires adequate oxygenation, but levels above 90% are generally sufficient for tissue repair. This finding alone does not significantly indicate a risk for delayed wound healing compared to nutritional deficits.
Choice C reason: An albumin level of 2.5 g/dL (normal: 3.5-5.0 g/dL) indicates malnutrition, a major risk for delayed wound healing. Albumin is essential for tissue repair, collagen synthesis, and immune function. Low levels impair fibroblast activity and wound strength, increasing infection risk and slowing recovery in post-surgical clients.
Choice D reason: A body mass index of 22 is within the normal range (18.5-24.9) and does not indicate malnutrition or obesity, both of which can impair wound healing. Normal BMI supports adequate nutritional status for tissue repair, making this finding not a risk factor for delayed wound healing.

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A nurse is performing an abdominal assessment as part of a client’s comprehensive physical examination. Which of the following is the final step the nurse should perform?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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