A nurse is planning care for a client who is postoperative following the insertion of an arteriovenous graft in their left forearm. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Check the pulse distal to the graft.
Keep the left forearm below the level of the heart.
Collect blood specimens from the graft.
Splint the left forearm to prevent damage to the graft.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Checking the pulse distal to the graft is essential to ensure that the graft is patent and that there is adequate blood flow to the distal extremity. A palpable pulse indicates that the graft is functioning properly and not occluded. The absence of a pulse could signify a serious complication, such as thrombosis or stenosis, which requires immediate attention.
Choice B reason: Keeping the left forearm below the level of the heart is not recommended as it can increase venous pressure and swelling, potentially compromising graft function. The extremity should be kept at or above heart level to promote venous return and reduce the risk of edema.
Choice C reason: Collecting blood specimens from the graft is generally avoided to prevent damage to the graft. Blood draws can be performed from other sites to protect the integrity of the graft.
Choice D reason: Splinting the left forearm is not a standard postoperative care measure for an arteriovenous graft. While protecting the graft from injury is important, immobilization with a splint is not necessary and can impede mobility and circulation.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: A client with diabetes mellitus presenting with acute ketoacidosis does not necessarily require a private room unless there are other infection control concerns. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs when the body produces high levels of blood acids called ketones. It is a medical emergency that requires treatment in a hospital, but it is not contagious.
Choice B reason: An older adult client admitted with aspiration pneumonia would not typically require a private room solely based on this condition. Aspiration pneumonia is caused by inhaling food, stomach acid, or saliva into the lungs. It can lead to a bacterial infection, which may or may not be contagious depending on the causative organism.
Choice C reason: A client with a compound fracture of the right femur would not require a private room based on the diagnosis alone. A compound fracture, also known as an open fracture, is a fracture in which there is an open wound or break in the skin near the site of the broken bone. While it requires immediate medical attention to prevent infection, it is not a condition that necessitates isolation.
Choice D reason: A client who reports having fever, night sweats, and cough for 2 days may require a private room due to the possibility of an infectious disease that could be transmitted to others, such as tuberculosis (TB). These symptoms are concerning for TB, which is an airborne infectious disease and would require airborne precautions, including a private room with negative pressure ventilation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: A headache following a grade 1 concussion, while requiring monitoring, does not typically necessitate immediate proximity to the nurses' station. Grade 1 concussions are considered mild and usually do not involve loss of consciousness.
Choice B reason: A client who has experienced brain death and is awaiting organ procurement will not benefit from being close to the nurses' station due to the irreversible nature of brain death. The care for such a client is focused on maintaining organ viability for transplantation.
Choice C reason: A client with a score of 10 on the Glasgow Coma Scale following a motor vehicle crash should be placed closest to the nurses' station. A GCS score of 10 indicates a moderate level of impairment in consciousness and potentially unstable vital signs, requiring close monitoring and rapid nursing intervention.
Choice D reason: A score of 0 on the NIH Stroke Scale indicates no observable neurological deficit. Clients with a transient ischemic attack (TIA) and a score of 0 would require less intensive observation compared to those with higher scores or other acute neurological injuries.
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