A nurse is preparing to initiate IV therapy for a client.
Which of the following sites should the nurse use to place the peripheral IV catheter?
Dominant antecubital basilic vein.
Nondominant dorsal venous arch.
Dominant distal dorsal vein.
Nondominant forearm basilic vein
The Correct Answer is D
This site is preferred for peripheral IV catheter placement because it is comfortable, has good blood flow, and has a lower risk of complications than the dominant arm or the antecubital fossa.
Choice A is wrong because the dominant antecubital basilic vein is more prone to dislodgement, thrombosis, and thrombophlebitis due to frequent movement of the elbow joint.
Choice B is wrong because the nondominant dorsal venous arch is a distal site that may have poor blood flow and higher resistance to infusion. It should be avoided unless there are no other options.
Choice C is wrong because the dominant distal dorsal vein is also a distal site that may have poor blood flow and higher resistance to infusion. It should be avoided unless there are no other options.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is because TPN solutions are concentrated and can cause thrombosis of peripheral veins, so a central venous catheter is usually required. TPN should only be used when the intestine is unavailable or unable to absorb nutrients.
Choice A is wrong because a midline catheter is a type of peripheral catheter that can only be used for solutions with low or moderate osmolarity, not for TPN.
Choice C is wrong because subcutaneous administration is not a route for delivering TPN, which requires intravenous infusion.
Choice D is wrong because intraosseous administration is an emergency route for delivering fluids and drugs when intravenous access is not available, not for TPN.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Distended neck veins are a sign of increased central venous pressure, which can result from fluid volume excess. Fluid volume excess can also cause edema, crackles in the lungs, and increased blood pressure.
Choice A is wrong because decreased bowel sounds are not related to fluid volume excess.
Decreased bowel sounds can indicate ileus, obstruction, or peritonitis. Choice B is wrong because bilateral muscle weakness is not a sign of fluid volume excess.
Bilateral muscle weakness can be caused by electrolyte imbalances, neuromuscular disorders, or stroke.
Choice C is wrong because thready pulse is a sign of fluid volume deficit, not excess.
Thready pulse indicates poor perfusion and low cardiac output, which can result from dehydration, hemorrhage, or shock.
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