A nurse is planning to administer medications to an older adult client who has dysphagia. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Administer more than one pill to the client at a time.

Tilt the client's head back when administering the medications

Place the medications on the back of the client's tongue

Mix the medications with a semisolid fop for the client

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Administer more than one pill to the client at a time: Administering more than one pill at a time may increase the risk of choking, especially for individuals with dysphagia. It's generally advisable to administer one medication at a time to ensure proper swallowing.
B. Tilt the client's head back when administering the medications: Tipping the head backward can increase the risk of aspiration (inhalation of medication into the airways). It is recommended to keep the head in a neutral or slightly forward position to facilitate swallowing.
C. Place the medications on the back of the client's tongue: Placing medications on the back of the tongue may trigger the gag reflex and increase the risk of aspiration. Medications should be placed on the front of the tongue to allow for better control and coordination of swallowing.
D. Mix the medications with a semisolid food for the client (Correct Answer): Mixing medications with a semisolid food, often referred to as "food thickening," can be beneficial for clients with dysphagia. This helps make the medications easier to swallow and reduces the risk of choking or aspiration. However, it is important to check with the healthcare provider or pharmacist to ensure compatibility with specific medications.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Nitroglycerin: Contraindicated with sildenafil due to the risk of severe hypotension. Both medications cause vasodilation, and their combined use can result in a dangerous drop in blood pressure.
B. Albuterol: Albuterol is not a contraindication for sildenafil. It is a bronchodilator used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
C. Furosemide: Furosemide is a diuretic and is not a contraindication for sildenafil. However, it is important to consider the overall health and medical conditions of the individual.
D. Indomethacin: Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) and is not a contraindication for sildenafil. However, individuals taking NSAIDs should be cautious due to potential interactions and side effects.

A. Dominant antecubital basilic vein B. Nondominant dorsal venous arch C. Dominant distal dorsal vein D. Nondominant forearm basilic vein

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Dominant antecubital basilic vein:
While the basilic vein in the antecubital area is a suitable site, the nondominant arm is generally preferred when possible to minimize interference with the client's activities.
B. Nondominant dorsal venous arch:
The dorsal venous arch, located on the back of the hand or wrist, is a common site for peripheral IV catheter placement. It is preferred over other sites like the antecubital area due to lower risks of complications such as phlebitis and infiltration. Additionally, using the nondominant hand reduces interference with daily activities.
C. Dominant distal dorsal vein:
The dorsal veins are generally not the first choice for peripheral IV catheter placement due to the potential for complications such as infiltration.
D. Nondominant forearm basilic vein:

Nondominant forearm basilic vein: The basilic vein in the nondominant forearm is often a suitable site for peripheral IV catheter placement. The nondominant arm is preferred when feasible to minimize disruption of activities for the client. However, its preferred to start the IV infusion distally to provide the option of proceeding up the extremity if the vein is ruptured or infiltration occurs; if infiltration occurs from the antecubital vein, the lower veins in the same arm usually should not be used for further puncture sites.

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A nurse is planning to administer medications to an older adult client who has dysphagia. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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