A nurse is planning to administer packed RBCs to an older adult client who has a low hemoglobin level.
Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Hang the transfusion with dextrose 5% in 0.9% sodium chloride.
Infuse the transfusion over 5 hr.
Use a 20-gauge IV catheter to transfuse the blood.
Monitor vital signs every hour throughout the transfusion.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Hanging the transfusion with dextrose 5% in 0.9% sodium chloride is incorrect. Packed red blood cells (PRBCs) are transfused with normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride) and not with dextrose-containing solutions. Using dextrose can cause the red blood cells to hemolyze.
Choice B rationale:
Infusing the transfusion over 5 hours is incorrect. PRBC transfusions are typically administered over 2-4 hours, not 5 hours. Infusing the blood too slowly may cause the patient discomfort and may also increase the risk of bacterial growth in the blood product.
Choice C rationale:
Using a 20-gauge IV catheter to transfuse the blood is incorrect. While a 20-gauge IV catheter is suitable for most blood transfusions, it may not be appropriate for older adults or patients with fragile veins. A smaller gauge, such as 22 or 24, might be more suitable to prevent phlebitis and ensure a steady flow without damaging the blood cells.
Choice D rationale:
Monitoring vital signs every hour throughout the transfusion is the correct action. During a blood transfusion, it's crucial to monitor the patient's vital signs frequently to detect any adverse reactions promptly. Vital signs, including blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature, should be assessed before the transfusion, 15 minutes after starting the transfusion, and then hourly thereafter. This vigilant monitoring helps in identifying potential transfusion reactions, such as fever, chills, or hypotension, allowing for immediate intervention if needed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
- A. This choice is incorrect because verapamil and TPN do not have a significant food and medication interaction. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that can lower blood pressure and heart rate, while TPN is a form of intravenous nutrition that provides calories, electrolytes, vitamins, and minerals. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs and blood glucose levels, but there is no need to intervene to prevent an interaction.
- B. This choice is incorrect because phenytoin and milkshakes do not have a significant food and medication interaction. Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant that can decrease the absorption of some vitamins, such as folic acid and vitamin D, but milkshakes are not a major source of these nutrients. The nurse should encourage the client to eat a balanced diet and take supplements as prescribed, but there is no need to intervene to prevent an interaction.
- C. This choice is incorrect because potassium-rich foods and furosemide do not have a significant food and medication interaction. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia, or low potassium levels, but potassium-rich foods can help prevent this complication. The nurse should monitor the client's electrolyte levels and fluid balance, but there is no need to intervene to prevent an interaction.
- D. This choice is correct because MAOIs and cheeseburgers have a significant food and medication interaction. MAOIs are antidepressants that can cause hypertensive crisis, or dangerously high blood pressure, if the client consumes foods that contain tyramine, such as aged cheeses, cured meats, fermented foods, and beer. The nurse should intervene to prevent the client from eating a cheeseburger and educate the client about avoiding tyramine-containing foods while taking MAOIs.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Uterine rupture typically presents with intense, constant abdominal pain and signs of shock. However, the absence of visible bleeding in the abdominal cavity makes this choice less likely in this case.
Choice B rationale:
Placental abruption involves the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before delivery. The sudden, severe abdominal pain, moderate vaginal bleeding, persistent uterine contractions, and signs of hypovolemic shock (low blood pressure, rigid abdomen) are indicative of placental abruption. This condition requires immediate medical intervention due to the risk of fetal and maternal compromise.
Choice C rationale:
Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical opening. It typically presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. The severe abdominal pain described in the scenario is inconsistent with placenta previa.
Choice D rationale:
Amniotic fluid embolus is a rare and life-threatening condition in which amniotic fluid enters the maternal bloodstream, causing an allergic reaction. It can lead to sudden cardiovascular collapse. Although it can cause respiratory distress and hypotension, it does not usually present with severe abdominal pain or uterine contractions.
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