A nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection to a client who is obese. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Select a 1-inch needle
Use a 45° angle when inserting the needle
Use the ventrogluteal site
Pinch the skin up during injection
The Correct Answer is C
- A. Incorrect. A 1-inch needle may not be long enough to reach the muscle layer in an obese client, which may result in subcutaneous injection and reduced absorption of the medication.
- B. Incorrect. A 45° angle may not be appropriate for an IM injection, as it may cause the needle to enter at an oblique angle and miss the muscle layer or hit a bone or nerve.
- C. Correct. The ventrogluteal site is preferred for IM injections in obese clients, as it has less subcutaneous fat and a large muscle mass that can accommodate larger volumes of medication.
- D. Incorrect. Pinching the skin up during injection may cause the needle to enter at a shallow angle and deposit the medication in the subcutaneous tissue instead of the muscle layer.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C"}
Explanation
Electrolyte imbalance in pregnant clients is often associated with conditions that lead to dehydration and nutritional deficiencies. In this scenario, the key indicators are persistent nausea and significant weight loss.
- Persistent nausea can lead to reduced food and fluid intake. This condition, especially if prolonged, can cause dehydration and electrolyte imbalances due to the loss of essential minerals and nutrients that are not being replenished due to inadequate dietary intake.
- Significant weight loss, particularly the amount described in the scenario (6.8 kg or 15 lb), is a clear sign of inadequate nutritional intake and can further exacerbate the risk of electrolyte imbalance. It indicates that the body is not receiving enough nutrients, which is crucial for maintaining electrolyte balance.
The other options, while related to diet and fluid intake, are more specific to the client's eating habits and do not directly point to the primary cause of potential electrolyte imbalance in the context of this scenario. Therefore, the most comprehensive and medically relevant choice is (A) Persistent nausea and significant weight loss.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A random plasma glucose level of 176 mg/dL indicates high blood sugar at the time of the test. Random glucose levels are not ideal for assessing glycemic control as they can vary based on recent food intake and stressors.
Choice B rationale:
Triglyceride levels are not used to assess glycemic control. They measure the amount of triglycerides in the bloodstream and are related to lipid metabolism, not glucose control.
Choice C rationale:
HbA1c (glycated hemoglobin) is a long-term measure of blood glucose control. An HbA1c level of 6.8% indicates acceptable glycemic control in a person with diabetes. The normal range for HbA1c is typically less than 6.5%. This test reflects the average blood sugar level over the past 2-3 months, giving a better understanding of overall glucose control.
Choice D rationale:
Fasting blood glucose of 120 mg/dL is slightly elevated. While fasting blood glucose levels below 100 mg/dL are generally considered normal, levels between 100-125 mg/dL are considered prediabetic, and levels above 126 mg/dL on two separate occasions indicate diabetes. The result provided falls within the prediabetic range but does not indicate optimal glycemic control.
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