A nurse is preparing to administer hydralazine to a client with pre-eclampsia who has a blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg.
What is the rationale for using this medication?
It reduces cerebral edema and prevents seizures
It increases uteroplacental perfusion and fetal oxygenation
It decreases proteinuria and prevents renal damage
It relaxes smooth muscle and lowers blood pressure
The Correct Answer is D
This is the rationale for using this medication in a client with pre-eclampsia who has a blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg. High blood pressure in pre-eclampsia can cause damage to the kidneys, liver, brain, and other organs, and can also increase the risk of complications for the baby.
Therefore, lowering blood pressure with hydralazine can help prevent or reduce these adverse outcomes.
Choice A is wrong because hydralazine does not reduce cerebral edema or prevent seizures. These are symptoms of eclampsia, a more severe form of pre-eclampsia that requires different treatment.
Choice B is wrong because hydralazine does not increase uteroplacental perfusion or fetal oxygenation. These are affected by other factors such as the placental function, maternal position, and fetal well-being.
Choice C is wrong because hydralazine does not decrease proteinuria or prevent renal damage.
Proteinuria is a sign of kidney impairment that occurs in pre-eclampsia, but it is not directly affected by hydralazine. Renal damage can be prevented by controlling blood pressure and avoiding nephrotoxic drugs.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This is the rationale for using this medication in a client with pre-eclampsia who has a blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg.High blood pressure in pre-eclampsia can cause damage to the kidneys, liver, brain, and other organs, and can also increase the risk of complications for the baby.
Therefore, lowering blood pressure with hydralazine can help prevent or reduce these adverse outcomes.
Choice A is wrong because hydralazine does not reduce cerebral edema or prevent seizures.These are symptoms of eclampsia, a more severe form of pre-eclampsia that requires different treatment.
Choice B is wrong because hydralazine does not increase uteroplacental perfusion or fetal oxygenation.These are affected by other factors such as the placental function, maternal position, and fetal well-being.
Choice C is wrong because hydralazine does not decrease proteinuria or prevent renal damage.
Proteinuria is a sign of kidney impairment that occurs in pre-eclampsia, but it is not directly affected by hydralazine.Renal damage can be prevented by controlling blood pressure and avoiding nephrotoxic drugs.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Magnesium sulfate.Magnesium sulfate is thedrug of choiceto prevent and treat seizures in people with severe preeclampsia and eclampsia.It is an anticonvulsant medication that reduces the risk of eclampsia by 50%.
Choice A is wrong because hydralazine is a blood pressure medication that can lower blood pressure in people with preeclampsia or eclampsia, but it does not prevent seizures.
Choice B is wrong because nifedipine is another blood pressure medication that can lower blood pressure in people with preeclampsia or eclampsia, but it does not prevent seizures.
Choice D is wrong because diazepam is an anticonvulsant medication that was previously used to treat eclamptic seizures, but it has been replaced by magnesium sulfate as the preferred drug due to its better safety and efficacy.Diazepam can also cause sedation and respiratory depression in the mother and the fetus.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are below 140/90 mm Hg, for proteinuria are below 300 mg/24 hours, for platelet count are 150,000 to 450,000 per microliter, for liver enzymes are 7 to 56 units per liter for alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and 10 to 40 units per liter for aspartate aminotransferase (AST), and for magnesium levels are 1.5 to 2.5 mEq/L.
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