A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client with severe pre-eclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate.
Which finding would indicate a therapeutic level of magnesium sulfate?
Serum magnesium level of 4.5 mEq/L
Serum calcium level of 8.5 mg/dL
Serum creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dL
Serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
The Correct Answer is A
This indicates a therapeutic level of magnesium sulfate for a client with severe pre-eclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate. According to some sources, the effective therapeutic serum magnesium level is 1.8–3.0 mmol/L, which corresponds to 4.2–7 mg/dL or 3.5–7 mEq/L.

Choice B is wrong because serum calcium level of 8.5 mg/dL is within the normal range and does not indicate the effect of magnesium sulfate.
Choice C is wrong because serum creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dL is within the normal range and does not indicate the effect of magnesium sulfate.
Choice D is wrong because serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is at the lower end of the normal range and does not indicate the effect of magnesium sulfate.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Urinary output of 25 mL/hour.This indicates magnesium toxicity and requires immediate intervention because it means the kidneys are not functioning properly and magnesium is not being excreted.Magnesium toxicity can cause life-threatening complications such as respiratory depression, cardiac arrest, and coma.
B. Respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute is normal and does not indicate magnesium toxicity.A respiratory rate of less than 12 breaths/minute or more than 20 breaths/minute would be abnormal and require further assessment.
C. Deep tendon reflexes 1+ are normal and do not indicate magnesium toxicity.A loss of deep tendon reflexes or clonus would indicate magnesium toxicity and require immediate intervention.
D. Serum magnesium level of 6 mg/dL is within the therapeutic range for preeclampsia and does not indicate magnesium toxicity.
The therapeutic range for preeclampsia is 4 to 7 mg/dL.A serum magnesium level of more than 8 mg/dL would indicate magnesium toxicity and require immediate intervention.

Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This is the rationale for using this medication in a client with pre-eclampsia who has a blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg.High blood pressure in pre-eclampsia can cause damage to the kidneys, liver, brain, and other organs, and can also increase the risk of complications for the baby.
Therefore, lowering blood pressure with hydralazine can help prevent or reduce these adverse outcomes.

Choice A is wrong because hydralazine does not reduce cerebral edema or prevent seizures.These are symptoms of eclampsia, a more severe form of pre-eclampsia that requires different treatment.
Choice B is wrong because hydralazine does not increase uteroplacental perfusion or fetal oxygenation.These are affected by other factors such as the placental function, maternal position, and fetal well-being.
Choice C is wrong because hydralazine does not decrease proteinuria or prevent renal damage.
Proteinuria is a sign of kidney impairment that occurs in pre-eclampsia, but it is not directly affected by hydralazine.Renal damage can be prevented by controlling blood pressure and avoiding nephrotoxic drugs.
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