A nurse is preparing to initiate IV access for an older adult client. Which of the following sites should the nurse select when initiating the IV for this client?

Radial vein of the inner arm

Great saphenous vein of the leg

Dorsal plexus vein of the foot

Basilic vein of the hand

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Radial vein of the inner arm. This is correct because this site is easily accessible, has good blood flow, and has less risk of complications such as infection, thrombosis, or infiltration.

B. Great saphenous vein of the leg. This is incorrect because this site is not recommended for older adults due to poor circulation, increased risk of thrombophlebitis, and difficulty in monitoring.

C. Dorsal plexus vein of the foot. This is incorrect because this site is prone to edema, infection, and injury, and can interfere with mobility and comfort.

D. Basilic vein of the hand. This is incorrect because this site is more painful, has smaller veins, and can cause nerve damage or occlusion if not inserted carefully.

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Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E","F"]

Explanation

A: Correct. Firmly massaging the uterine fundus helps to contract the uterus and reduce bleeding.

B: Correct. Providing emotional support helps to calm the client and reduce anxiety, which can worsen bleeding.

C: Correct. Administering oxygen helps to improve tissue perfusion and oxygenation, which can be compromised by blood loss.

D: Correct. Weighing the perineal pads helps to quantify the amount of blood loss and monitor for hemorrhage.

E: Correct. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter helps to empty the bladder and allow the uterus to descend and contract more effectively.

F: Correct. Administering methylergonovine helps to stimulate uterine contractions and control bleeding.

G: Incorrect. Administering terbutaline is contraindicated in this situation, as it relaxes the uterine smooth muscle and increases bleeding.

A. Decreased blood pressure B. Decreased hallucinations C. Decreased cholesterol D. Decreased esophageal reflux

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A: Incorrect. Decreased blood pressure is not an indication of chlorpromazine effectiveness, but rather a potential adverse effect that should be monitored and reported.

B: Correct. Decreased hallucinations are an indication of chlorpromazine effectiveness, as this medication is an antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors in the brain and reduces psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, and paranoia.

C: Incorrect. Decreased cholesterol is not an indication of chlorpromazine effectiveness, but rather a potential benefit that may occur due to its effect on lipid metabolism.

D: Incorrect. Decreased esophageal reflux is not an indication of chlorpromazine effectiveness, but rather a potential adverse effect that should be avoided by taking the medication with food or water and avoiding lying down after administration.

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A nurse is preparing to initiate IV access for an older adult client. Which of the following sites should the nurse select when initiating the IV for this client?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E","F"]

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for chlorpromazine. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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