A nurse is providing care for four patients. Which patient should the nurse evaluate first for cognitive impairment?
A 42-year-old patient with a serum sodium level of 134 mEq/L (134 mmol/L).
An 88-year-old patient who had a hemorrhagic stroke three days ago.
A patient who underwent an open cholecystectomy two days ago.
A 32-year-old patient with a 20-pack-year history of smoking.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
A serum sodium level of 134 mEq/L (134 mmol/L) is mildly low, but this level of hyponatremia is not typically associated with significant cognitive impairment.
Symptoms of hyponatremia, such as confusion, lethargy, and seizures, usually occur when sodium levels are 125 mEq/L or lower.
However, it's important to monitor this patient for any changes in cognitive status as hyponatremia can worsen and lead to more severe symptoms.
Choice C rationale:
A patient who underwent an open cholecystectomy two days ago may experience some cognitive impairment due to the effects of anesthesia and pain medications.
However, this type of impairment is usually temporary and resolves within a few days.
It's important to assess for cognitive impairment in this patient, but it is not the most urgent priority.
Choice D rationale:
A 32-year-old patient with a 20-pack-year history of smoking is at risk for cognitive impairment due to the long-term effects of smoking on the brain.
However, this risk is typically not as immediate as the risk of cognitive impairment following a stroke.
It's important to educate this patient about the risks of smoking and encourage smoking cessation, but it is not the most urgent priority in terms of cognitive assessment.
Choice B rationale:
An 88-year-old patient who had a hemorrhagic stroke three days ago is at the highest risk for cognitive impairment among the given options.
Hemorrhagic stroke involves bleeding in the brain, which can damage brain tissue and lead to cognitive deficits.
The risk of cognitive impairment is particularly high in older adults, as they may have less cognitive reserve to compensate for the damage caused by the stroke.
Early assessment and intervention for cognitive impairment are crucial for optimizing recovery and quality of life in stroke patients.
Prompt evaluation for cognitive impairment is essential to identify any deficits and initiate appropriate interventions to support the patient's cognitive function and recovery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice B rationale:
Benign tumors typically grow in the wrong place or at the wrong time. This is a key distinguishing feature of benign tumors compared to normal cells. Normal cells have precise mechanisms that control their growth, ensuring they divide and multiply only when and where they are needed. Benign tumors, however, have disruptions in these regulatory mechanisms, leading to abnormal growth patterns. This means they may grow in locations where they don't belong or continue to grow even when they are no longer needed.
Here's a detailed explanation of why the other choices are incorrect:
Choice A:
Benign tumors have not lost their cellular regulation from contact inhibition. Contact inhibition is a process that stops normal cells from growing when they come into contact with other cells. Benign tumors still maintain this ability, which helps to limit their growth and prevent them from spreading to other tissues.
Choice C:
Benign tumors do not grow through invasion of other tissue. Invasion is a hallmark feature of malignant tumors (cancers). Benign tumors, on the other hand, typically grow as encapsulated masses, meaning they are surrounded by a well-defined border that separates them from surrounding tissues. They do not infiltrate or invade surrounding structures.
Choice D:
Anaplasia refers to the loss of differentiation and resemblance to the parent cells, which is a characteristic of malignant tumors, not benign tumors. Benign tumors still maintain a degree of differentiation, meaning they retain some of the characteristics of the normal cells from which they originated.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale for Choice A:
Hydroxychloroquine does not typically cause hair loss as a significant side effect. While some anecdotal reports have suggested hair thinning as a possibility, it's not a well-established or common occurrence in clinical studies.
If a patient experiences hair loss while on hydroxychloroquine, it's essential to rule out other potential causes, such as underlying medical conditions, stress, or nutritional deficiencies.
It's also important to note that some individuals may have a personal predisposition to hair loss, and medications can sometimes trigger or exacerbate this issue.
Rationale for Choice B:
Hydroxychloroquine is not known to cause a burst of energy. In fact, some patients may experience fatigue or drowsiness as a side effect.
It's crucial to inform patients about potential side effects to manage expectations and promote adherence to treatment.
If a patient experiences unexpected energy changes while taking hydroxychloroquine, it's essential to report this to their healthcare provider for further evaluation.
Rationale for Choice C:
Hydroxychloroquine is generally recommended to be taken with food or milk to reduce potential gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting.
Taking it on an empty stomach could increase the risk of these side effects, which could impact medication adherence and effectiveness.
Rationale for Choice D:
Retinal damage is the most serious adverse effect of hydroxychloroquine. It can lead to irreversible vision loss if not detected and managed early.
Patients taking hydroxychloroquine must undergo regular eye examinations to monitor for any signs of retinal toxicity.
Early detection and prompt discontinuation of the medication can often prevent permanent vision loss.
It's crucial for nurses to educate patients about this potential risk and emphasize the importance of regular eye exams.
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