A nurse is providing care to a woman who is at 36 weeks of gestation and in preterm labor with ruptured membranes.The nurse determines that the client's oral temperature is 39.0 C (102.2 F). Besides notifying the provider, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?
Administer prescribed antipyretics for maternal fever.
Prepare the client for emergency cesarean section.
Administer glucocorticoids intramuscularly.
Recheck the client's temperature in 4 hr.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Administering antipyretics for maternal fever is essential as elevated maternal temperatures can increase the risk of fetal tachycardia and potentially lead to fetal distress. Reducing fever promptly is a priority to stabilize both maternal and fetal conditions.
Choice B rationale
Preparing for an emergency cesarean section is not the immediate step for maternal fever; instead, managing the fever and assessing the need for further interventions based on the overall clinical picture should be prioritized.
Choice C rationale
Administering glucocorticoids is indicated for promoting fetal lung maturity in preterm labor, not specifically for maternal fever management. Fever management requires antipyretics and hydration.
Choice D rationale
Waiting 4 hours to recheck temperature delays prompt management, increasing risks for both the mother and fetus. Immediate action to reduce fever is crucial to prevent potential complications.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Assessing the client's blood pressure can help determine if there is a significant loss of blood and consequent hypotension. However, it is not the immediate first action to manage heavy bleeding postpartum.
Choice B rationale
Assessing the bladder for distention is crucial as a full bladder can interfere with uterine contraction, potentially leading to increased bleeding. But, it isn't the first priority compared to addressing the immediate bleeding.
Choice C rationale
Massaging the client's fundus is the priority action in this case. It helps to contract the uterus, thereby reducing bleeding. Uterine atony is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, and fundal massage is the first intervention to manage it.
Choice D rationale
Preparing to administer a prescription may be necessary, especially if uterotonics are required. However, this is a subsequent step after attempting to control the bleeding through fundal massage.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Placenta formation begins shortly after implantation, but it continues to develop throughout the first trimester and into the early second trimester, making it less precise to attribute the first 8 weeks solely to this process.
Choice B rationale
Fertilization occurs within the first week after ovulation, marking the beginning of pregnancy, but it is a singular event that happens prior to the developmental processes vulnerable to teratogens.
Choice C rationale
Organogenesis is the critical period during which the major organs and structures of the fetus form, typically occurring between the third and eighth weeks of gestation. This is the time when the fetus is most susceptible to the effects of teratogens, which can cause congenital anomalies.
Choice D rationale
Implantation occurs approximately 6-10 days after fertilization, embedding the blastocyst into the uterine lining. While crucial, it is not the primary period when teratogenic effects are most significant, as this happens during organogenesis.
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