A nurse is providing client teaching regarding an intrauterine device (IUD). Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
You might have to have cultures for sexually transmitted infections prior to placement of the device.
The device will have to be replaced every 2 years.
You might experience irregular spotting the first few months after placement of the device.
You will need to avoid using tampons during menstrual cycles.
You will need to sign informed consent prior to the procedure.
Correct Answer : A,C,E
Choice A rationale
Prior to IUD insertion, screening for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) is crucial to prevent the introduction of pathogens into the upper reproductive tract. An untreated STI, particularly chlamydia or gonorrhea, can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) when an IUD is placed, as the device might facilitate the ascent of bacteria.
Choice B rationale
The duration of effectiveness for intrauterine devices varies depending on the type. Hormonal IUDs typically last for 3 to 8 years, while copper IUDs can remain effective for up to 10 years. Therefore, the statement that the device must be replaced every 2 years is incorrect and misleading for most available IUDs.
Choice C rationale
Irregular spotting and changes in menstrual bleeding patterns are common side effects during the initial months following IUD placement, particularly with hormonal IUDs. This is due to the local endometrial effects of progesterone release or the inflammatory reaction induced by copper, as the uterus adapts to the foreign body.
Choice D rationale
There is no medical contraindication to using tampons with an IUD. The IUD resides in the uterus, while tampons are inserted into the vaginal canal. There is no physical interaction or risk of dislodgement of the IUD by tampon use. Clients can continue their preferred menstrual hygiene products.
Choice E rationale
Informed consent is a fundamental ethical and legal requirement before any medical procedure, including IUD insertion. The client must be provided with comprehensive information regarding the procedure, including its benefits, risks, alternatives, and potential side effects, to make an autonomous and voluntary decision.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is []
Explanation
Rationale for correct condition:
Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized ovum implants outside the uterine cavity, typically in the fallopian tube. The absence of an intrauterine pregnancy on transvaginal ultrasound at an hCG level of 2000 IU/L (above the discriminatory zone of 1500-2000 IU/L) strongly suggests ectopic pregnancy. The patient’s left lower quadrant pain and vaginal bleeding are classic signs. Progesterone >4 ng/dL indicates a potentially viable pregnancy, but no intrauterine gestation confirms ectopic risk. Early diagnosis is crucial to prevent tubal rupture and hemorrhagic shock.
Rationale for correct actions:
Intramuscular methotrexate is a folic acid antagonist used to medically manage unruptured ectopic pregnancies by inhibiting trophoblastic cell division. It is preferred when the patient is hemodynamically stable, avoiding surgery. CBC monitors for anemia from bleeding; liver function tests assess methotrexate toxicity risk, as the drug is hepatotoxic. Both are essential for safe medical management.
Rationale for correct parameters:
Hypotension indicates potential internal bleeding from tubal rupture requiring immediate intervention. Referred shoulder pain occurs from diaphragmatic irritation by blood in the peritoneal cavity, signaling intra-abdominal hemorrhage. Monitoring these signs allows early detection of complications.
Rationale for incorrect conditions:
Spontaneous abortion typically shows declining hCG and intrauterine findings of miscarriage, which are absent here. Molar pregnancy presents with markedly elevated hCG (>100,000 IU/L) and characteristic ultrasound “snowstorm” appearance, not seen. Cervical insufficiency causes painless cervical dilation in the second trimester, not early pregnancy pain with bleeding.
Rationale for incorrect actions:
Dilation and curettage is indicated in incomplete abortion, not ectopic pregnancy. Cervical cerclage treats cervical insufficiency, unrelated to this presentation. Oxytocic agents induce uterine contractions in miscarriage or labor, not ectopic management.
Rationale for incorrect parameters:
Size of uterus is irrelevant here because no intrauterine pregnancy is seen. Uterine cramping is nonspecific and more relevant in miscarriage. Leakage of amniotic fluid occurs in membrane rupture, not ectopic pregnancy.
Take-home points:
- Absence of intrauterine pregnancy at hCG >1500 IU/L suggests ectopic pregnancy.
- Methotrexate is first-line medical treatment for stable ectopic pregnancies.
- Hypotension and referred shoulder pain are critical signs of rupture and hemorrhage.
- Differentiation from miscarriage, molar pregnancy, and cervical insufficiency is vital for appropriate care.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Magnesium sulfate toxicity causes central nervous system depression, including respiratory depression. A respiratory rate of 12 breaths/min indicates that the respiratory depression has resolved, suggesting the calcium gluconate, a magnesium antagonist, has effectively reversed the neuromuscular blockade caused by magnesium. A normal respiratory rate is 12-20 breaths/min.
Choice B rationale
Absent deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) are a sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity due to its depressant effect on neuromuscular transmission. If calcium gluconate were effective, DTRs would return to normal or become less diminished, indicating resolution of magnesium's inhibitory effects on the nervous system.
Choice C rationale
Slurred speech is a neurological symptom associated with magnesium sulfate toxicity, reflecting central nervous system depression. If calcium gluconate were effective in reversing the toxicity, slurred speech would improve or resolve as the central nervous system depression diminishes.
Choice D rationale
Urine output of 22 mL/hr indicates oliguria, which can be a sign of worsening preeclampsia or kidney dysfunction, and is not an indicator of effective calcium gluconate administration for magnesium toxicity. Adequate urine output (typically >30 mL/hr) is essential for magnesium excretion and overall renal function.
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