A nurse is providing discharge teaching about home care of a surgical incision to a client who speaks a different language from the nurse.
The nurse is communicating with the client using an interpreter.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Use gestures to convey meaning.
Pause in the middle of sentences
Speak slowly when talking to the interpreter
Speak directly to the client
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is choice D. Speak directly to the client. This is because the nurse should establish eye contact and rapport with the client, not the interpreter, and show respect for the client’s culture and autonomy. The nurse should also use simple and clear language, avoid jargon and slang, and speak in short sentences.
Choice A is wrong because using gestures to convey meaning can be confusing or offensive to some cultures. The nurse should avoid relying on nonverbal communication and ask the interpreter for clarification if needed.
Choice B is wrong because pausing in the middle of sentences can disrupt the flow of communication and make it harder for the interpreter to translate accurately. The nurse should pause at the end of each complete thought or sentence to allow the interpreter to relay the information.
Choice C is wrong because speaking slowly when talking to the interpreter can imply that the interpreter is incompetent or unintelligent. The nurse should speak at a normal pace and tone, and allow enough time for the interpreter to translate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice a. Maternal hypoglycemia.
Choice A rationale:
Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to fetal bradycardia, causing a sustained low fetal heart rate. Hypoglycemia in the mother can affect the fetus by reducing the availability of glucose, which is essential for fetal metabolism and heart function.
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Choice B rationale:
Maternal fever is more commonly associated with fetal tachycardia rather than bradycardia. Fever in the mother can lead to an increased fetal heart rate, not a decreased one.
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Choice C rationale:
Chorioamnionitis is an infection of the fetal membranes and amniotic fluid, which can lead to fetal distress and tachycardia rather than bradycardia.
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Choice D rationale:
Fetal anemia can also cause bradycardia, but in this scenario, maternal hypoglycemia is a more immediate concern as it directly affects the fetal heart rate by impacting the fetal metabolic processes.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This prescription is complete because it includes the medication name, dose, route, and frequency.
A complete prescription should also include the client’s name, date, time, signature of the prescriber, and any special instructions.
Choice A is wrong because it does not specify the dose of cimetidine.
PO twice daily is not enough information to administer the medication safely.
Choice B is wrong because it does not specify the frequency of tetracycline.
200 mg PO is not enough information to administer the medication safely.
Choice C is wrong because it does not specify the route of epoetin alfa.
150 units/kg three times weekly is not enough information to administer the medication safely.
Normal ranges for digoxin are 0.5 to 2 ng/mL for heart failure and 0.8 to 2 ng/mL for atrial fibrillation.
Normal ranges for cimetidine are 50 to 150 ng/mL.
Normal ranges for tetracycline are 1 to 10 mcg/mL.
Normal ranges for epoetin alfa are not applicable as it is a synthetic hormone that stimulates red blood cell production.
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