A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who is receiving treatment for genital herpes. Which of the following statements by the client indicates the effectiveness of the teaching?
"I should apply antibiotic ointment to the lesions."
"I should use natural skin condoms during sexual intercourse."
"I should expect my lesions to resolve in 6 weeks."
"I should expect to take my medication for 3 weeks."
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Applying antibiotic ointment to the lesions is not recommended for the treatment of genital herpes, which is caused by a virus, not bacteria. Antiviral medications are the appropriate treatment for managing herpes outbreaks.
Choice B reason: Natural skin condoms are not effective in preventing the transmission of genital herpes because the virus can pass through the natural membrane. The use of latex or polyurethane condoms is recommended as they are more effective in reducing the risk of transmission.
Choice C reason: Expecting lesions to resolve in 6 weeks may not be accurate as the duration of a herpes outbreak can vary. Most herpes lesions tend to resolve within 2 to 4 weeks. However, the virus remains in the body and can cause recurrent outbreaks.
Choice D reason: The duration of medication for genital herpes depends on whether the treatment is for an initial outbreak, chronic suppression, or episodic therapy. For an initial outbreak, antiviral medication is typically taken for 7 to 10 days. For chronic suppression, medication might be taken daily for an extended period to prevent or reduce the frequency of outbreaks.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason : Pressing down on the orbital area of the eye is not a recommended method for eliciting a response from a painful stimulus in an unresponsive patient due to the potential for injury to the eye.
Choice B reason : Pressing down on the trapezius muscle is an acceptable method for eliciting a response from a painful stimulus in an unresponsive patient. This technique is less invasive and can be performed safely to assess the patient's level of consciousness or response to pain without causing harm⁸.
Choice C reason : Using a 25-gauge needle is not an appropriate method for eliciting a response from a painful stimulus in an unresponsive patient. This could cause unnecessary harm and is not a standard practice in clinical settings.
Choice D reason : Eliciting a reflex with a reflex hammer is a method used to assess reflexes, not to elicit a response from a painful stimulus in an unresponsive patient. This tool is used to test neurological function and reflex integrity, not to assess pain response.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: The fluctuation of fluid in the water-seal chamber does not necessarily mean that the lung is fully re-expanded. The water-seal chamber's fluid level fluctuates with the client's breathing because it reflects the changes in intrathoracic pressure.
Choice B reason: The statement "Your breathing pattern causes this" is correct. The fluctuation, also known as tidaling, in the water-seal chamber is normal and occurs in response to the client's breathing. When the client inhales, negative pressure in the chest cavity causes the fluid level to rise, and when the client exhales, the pressure becomes positive, causing the fluid level to fall.
Choice C reason: Suction pressure that is too high can cause continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber but does not directly cause the fluid in the water-seal chamber to rise and fall. The suction control chamber's bubbling should be steady and gentle when the suction is set correctly.
Choice D reason: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber may indicate an air leak, which is a problem that needs to be addressed. However, normal fluctuation with breathing is not indicative of an air leak.
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