A nurse is providing education before administering apixaban (Eliquis) to a client who has persistent atrial fibrillation. Which of the following statements made by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
"I will be taking this medication to reduce my risk of bleeding."
"This medication will control my ventricular rate."
"This medication will convert my heart rhythm back to normal sinus rhythm."
"The purpose of this medication is to reduce the chance that I will have a stroke."
The Correct Answer is D
A. Apixaban is an anticoagulant used to prevent clot formation and reduce stroke risk, not specifically to reduce bleeding risk.
B. Rate control is typically achieved with medications like beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers, not anticoagulants like apixaban.
C. Apixaban does not convert heart rhythm; it prevents blood clots.
D. The primary purpose of apixaban in patients with atrial fibrillation is to reduce the risk of stroke by preventing blood clot formation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["24"]
Explanation
To calculate the IV pump rate, you'll need to use the formula: (Ordered amount of medication (units/hr) × Volume of fluid in mL) / Amount of medication in the volume = IV pump rate in mL/hr. For the given scenario, the ordered amount is 1,200 units/hr, the volume of fluid is 500 mL, and the amount of medication in the volume is 25,000 units. Plugging these numbers into the formula gives you: (1,200 units/hr × 500 mL) / 25,000 units = 24 mL/hr. Therefore, the nurse should set the IV pump to deliver 24 mL/hr.
Correct Answer is ["A","D","F","G"]
Explanation
A. Administering furosemide 40 mg via IV push once is appropriate for treating fluid overload, as evidenced by pitting edema and crackles in the lungs, common in heart failure.
B. An IV infusion of normal saline (NS) at 150 mL/hr is not appropriate for this client as it can exacerbate fluid overload and worsen heart failure symptoms.
C. Administering digoxin 0.25 mg via IV push NOW may be indicated, but considering the client's low pulse rate (55/min), caution is necessary due to the risk of digoxin toxicity and bradycardia.
D. Monitoring daily weights is crucial for assessing fluid balance in heart failure patients and detecting any changes in fluid status.
E. Calling a code STEMI is not appropriate as the client does not exhibit signs of a STEMI; troponin levels are not elevated, and there is no indication of an acute myocardial infarction.
F. Monitoring strict intake and output helps in managing fluid balance and ensuring accurate assessment of the client's fluid status.
G. Preparing the client for an echocardiogram is appropriate to assess cardiac function and evaluate the severity of heart failure.
H. Radiofrequency catheter ablation is not indicated for this client as it is typically used to treat arrhythmias, not heart failure or fluid overload.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
