A nurse is providing teaching to a group of clients about risk factors for ovarian cancer. Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include? (Select all that apply)

Nulliparity

History of breastfeeding

Previous use of oral contraceptives

History of breast cancer

Use of postmenopausal estrogen

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,D,E

A. Nulliparity: Correct. Nulliparity, or never having been pregnant, is a known risk factor for ovarian cancer. Women who have never given birth have a higher risk of developing ovarian cancer compared to those who have had one or more children.

B. History of breastfeeding: Incorrect. Breastfeeding is generally associated with a decreased risk of ovarian cancer. It is thought to reduce the number of lifetime ovulatory cycles, thereby potentially lowering the risk.

C. Previous use of oral contraceptives: Incorrect. The use of oral contraceptives is associated with a reduced risk of ovarian cancer. Long-term use can significantly decrease the risk, and the protective effect may continue for years after discontinuation.

D. History of breast cancer: Correct. A history of breast cancer is a risk factor for ovarian cancer, particularly in women with BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations. These mutations increase the risk of both breast and ovarian cancers.

E. Use of postmenopausal estrogen: Correct. The use of postmenopausal estrogen, especially when used without progesterone, is associated with an increased risk of ovarian cancer. Estrogen therapy can stimulate the growth of ovarian tumors in susceptible women.

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Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"B"},"B":{"answers":"A"},"C":{"answers":"B"},"D":{"answers":"A,B"}}

Explanation

• Uterine tone
o Placenta previa: Not typically associated with abnormal uterine tone.
o Abruptio placenta: Associated with hard and rigid abdomen, uterine hypertonicity, and tenderness.
• Vaginal bleeding characteristics
o Placenta previa: Typically characterized by bright red, painless vaginal bleeding.
o Abruptio placenta: Often associated with dark red, painful vaginal bleeding.
• Pain rate
o Placenta previa: Usually presents with minimal or no pain.
o Abruptio placenta: Associated with sudden, severe abdominal pain and tenderness.
• Client weeks of gestation
o Placenta previa: Commonly diagnosed later in pregnancy, around 30 weeks or later.
o Abruptio placenta: Can occur at any point after 20 weeks of gestation, but often seen closer to term.

A. Abruptio placentae B. Hydatidiform mole C. Preterm labor D. Placenta previa

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Abruptio placentae: Correct. Continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, especially in a client with a history of cocaine use, suggest abruptio placentae. Cocaine use is a significant risk factor for this condition, where the placenta detaches prematurely from the uterine wall.

B. Hydatidiform mole: Incorrect. Hydatidiform mole, or molar pregnancy, typically presents with abnormal vaginal bleeding early in pregnancy, not at 38 weeks of gestation.

C. Preterm labor: Incorrect. While preterm labor can involve abdominal pain and bleeding, the specific combination of continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding with a history of cocaine use is more indicative of abruptio placentae.

D. Placenta previa: Incorrect. Placenta previa generally causes painless bleeding, not continuous abdominal pain. It also usually presents earlier in pregnancy.

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A nurse is providing teaching to a group of clients about risk factors for ovarian cancer. Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include? (Select all that apply)

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"B"},"B":{"answers":"A"},"C":{"answers":"B"},"D":{"answers":"A,B"}}

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and is experiencing continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The client has a history of cocaine use. The nurse should identify that the client is likely experiencing which of the following complications?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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