A nurse is receiving a telephone prescription for a client from a provider. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when transcribing the prescription?
Use the provider’s initials after the prescription
Repeat the prescription to the provider
Write the prescription in shorthand
Read back the prescription to the provider
The Correct Answer is D
A) Use the provider’s initials after the prescription:
Using the provider's initials after the prescription is not an appropriate or standard practice. The nurse should transcribe the prescription accurately and include the provider's full name or identification, but not initials. The nurse is responsible for ensuring the correct interpretation and transmission of the order, and abbreviations or initials could lead to errors or confusion.
B) Repeat the prescription to the provider:
Repeating the prescription to the provider may not be sufficient. It is important to read the prescription back to the provider to ensure that both the nurse and the provider are in agreement about the medication order. Repeating the prescription is a good practice, but it does not provide the same level of verification as reading it back to ensure its accuracy.
C) Write the prescription in shorthand:
Writing prescriptions in shorthand is unsafe and should be avoided. Shorthand can lead to misunderstandings or misinterpretations of the order, which could result in medication errors. The nurse should transcribe the prescription clearly and in full, without using any abbreviations or shorthand, to ensure clarity and accuracy.
D) Read back the prescription to the provider:
Reading back the prescription to the provider is the correct action. This practice, often referred to as "read-back," helps to confirm that the nurse has accurately heard and understood the provider’s order. It is a safety measure that reduces the likelihood of medication errors, especially in high-risk situations like verbal or telephone orders. The nurse should repeat the prescription verbatim, including dosage, route, frequency, and any other relevant details, to ensure it has been transcribed correctly.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) The client is underweight:
Being underweight is not directly associated with an increased risk of incisional hematoma formation. However, underweight individuals may have a lower amount of subcutaneous fat, which could affect wound healing. While nutritional status plays a role in recovery after surgery, being underweight does not specifically increase the risk of hematoma formation at
the incision site.
B) The client takes anticoagulant medications:
Taking anticoagulant medications (e.g., warfarin, heparin, or newer anticoagulants like dabigatran) increases the risk of bleeding and the formation of an incisional hematoma. Anticoagulants work by reducing the blood's ability to clot, making it more difficult to stop bleeding after surgery. This increases the likelihood of blood accumulating in the tissue around the incision site, potentially forming a hematoma.
C) The client has urinary incontinence:
Urinary incontinence does not directly increase the risk of incisional hematoma formation. However, it can lead to other complications, such as skin irritation or infection, but it is not a primary risk factor for hematoma formation in the surgical wound. The main concern with urinary incontinence in the perioperative period is ensuring proper skin care to prevent moisture-associated skin damage.
D) The client has peripheral vascular disease:
Peripheral vascular disease (PVD) affects circulation in the extremities, which can impair wound healing due to decreased blood flow. While PVD can contribute to delayed healing and complications like infection, it is not the most significant factor for the formation of incisional hematomas.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Chloride 112:
Chloride levels are typically not directly associated with numbness or tingling of the hands and fingers. Elevated chloride levels (greater than 108 mEq/L) may indicate metabolic acidosis, but they would not directly explain the symptoms seen in this client following parathyroidectomy. Therefore, this value is unlikely to be relevant in this scenario.
B) Calcium 7.5:
After the partial removal of the parathyroid glands, the client may experience hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, due to the reduced production of parathyroid hormone (PTH). PTH helps regulate calcium levels in the blood. When the parathyroid glands are removed or damaged, there may be insufficient PTH to maintain normal calcium levels, leading to hypocalcemia. Symptoms of hypocalcemia include numbness and tingling, especially in the hands and fingers. A calcium level of 7.5 mg/dL is below the normal range (8.5–10.5 mg/dL), indicating hypocalcemia, which is consistent with the patient's symptoms.
C) Potassium 4.0:
A potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L is within the normal range (3.5–5.0 mEq/L) and does not typically cause numbness or tingling. Although potassium imbalances can cause neuromuscular symptoms, they would not be the most likely cause of the symptoms in this case, especially in relation to parathyroidectomy.
D) Calcium 12.1:
A calcium level of 12.1 mg/dL is elevated and would suggest hypercalcemia. Hypercalcemia can cause symptoms like fatigue, confusion, and weakness, but it does not typically cause numbness and tingling in the hands and fingers. Elevated calcium levels are more likely to occur in conditions such as hyperparathyroidism or malignancy, not typically following parathyroid gland removal. Therefore, this is not the expected lab result in this scenario.
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