A nurse is reporting a client’s laboratory tests to the provider to obtain a prescription for the client’s daily warfarin.
Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to report to obtain the prescription for the warfarin?
INR.
Fibrinogen level.
aPTT.
Platelet count.
The Correct Answer is A
Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that inhibits the synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, and X in the liver. These factors are part of the extrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are measured by the prothrombin time (PT) and the international normalized ratio (INR). The INR is a standardized way of reporting the PT that accounts for the variability of different reagents and instruments. The INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose accordingly. The target INR range depends on the indication for warfarin, but it is usually between 2 and 3 for most conditions.
Choice B is wrong because fibrinogen level is not affected by warfarin.
Fibrinogen is a precursor of fibrin, which forms the final step of the coagulation cascade.
Fibrinogen level can be decreased in conditions such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), liver disease, or severe bleeding.
Choice C is wrong because aPTT is not affected by warfarin.
aPTT measures the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are mainly dependent on factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII.
These factors are not inhibited by warfarin.
aPTT is used to monitor the effect of heparin, a direct antithrombin agent that inhibits thrombin and factor Xa.
Choice D is wrong because platelet count is not affected by warfarin.
Platelets are cell fragments that adhere to damaged blood vessels and form aggregates to initiate hemostasis.
Platelet count can be decreased in conditions such as immune thrombocytopenia (ITP), heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), or bone marrow suppression.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice b. “I can start the medication 30 minutes earlier.”.
Choice A rationale:
Adjusting the time and schedule for convenience is not appropriate for medications like vancomycin, which require precise timing to maintain therapeutic levels and avoid resistance.
Choice B rationale:
Starting the medication 30 minutes earlier is a reasonable adjustment that maintains the medication’s effectiveness and safety.
Choice C rationale:
Administering the medication up to 2 hours after the usual schedule time is incorrect because it could lead to subtherapeutic levels and reduced effectiveness.
Choice D rationale:
Infusing the medication at a faster rate is unsafe as it increases the risk of adverse reactions, such as "red man syndrome".
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is because the retention port is a sterile site that can be accessed by a syringe to aspirate urine without contaminating the specimen or the closed drainage system. The retention port should be cleaned with an alcohol swab before inserting the syringe. The specimen should be transferred to a sterile container and labeled appropriately.
Choice A is wrong because unclamping the collection port below the bag would allow urine to flow out of the bag, which is not sterile and may contain bacteria or sediment.
Choice C is wrong because disconnecting the catheter from the collection tubing would break the closed drainage system and increase the risk of infection.
Choice D is wrong because using the balloon port to obtain the sterile specimen would deflate the balloon that holds the catheter in place and cause trauma to the bladder wall.
Normal ranges for urine characteristics vary depending on the type of analysis, but some general parameters are:
• Color: pale yellow to amber
• Clarity: clear or slightly cloudy
• Odor: faint aromatic
• pH: 4.5 to 8.0
• Specific gravity: 1.005 to 1.030
• Protein: <150 mg/24 hr
• Glucose: negative
• Ketones: negative
• Blood: negative
• Nitrites: negative
• Leukocyte esterase: negative
• Bacteria: <10,000 CFU/mL
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