A nurse is reporting a client’s laboratory tests to the provider to obtain a prescription for the client’s daily warfarin.
Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to report to obtain the prescription for the warfarin?
INR.
Fibrinogen level.
aPTT.
Platelet count.
The Correct Answer is A
Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that inhibits the synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, and X in the liver. These factors are part of the extrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are measured by the prothrombin time (PT) and the international normalized ratio (INR). The INR is a standardized way of reporting the PT that accounts for the variability of different reagents and instruments. The INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose accordingly. The target INR range depends on the indication for warfarin, but it is usually between 2 and 3 for most conditions.
Choice B is wrong because fibrinogen level is not affected by warfarin.
Fibrinogen is a precursor of fibrin, which forms the final step of the coagulation cascade.
Fibrinogen level can be decreased in conditions such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), liver disease, or severe bleeding.
Choice C is wrong because aPTT is not affected by warfarin.
aPTT measures the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are mainly dependent on factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII.
These factors are not inhibited by warfarin.
aPTT is used to monitor the effect of heparin, a direct antithrombin agent that inhibits thrombin and factor Xa.
Choice D is wrong because platelet count is not affected by warfarin.
Platelets are cell fragments that adhere to damaged blood vessels and form aggregates to initiate hemostasis.
Platelet count can be decreased in conditions such as immune thrombocytopenia (ITP), heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), or bone marrow suppression.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Dizziness is a manifestation of hypovolemia, which is a decrease in blood volume due to fluid loss. Hypovolemia can cause orthostatic hypotension, which is a drop in blood pressure when changing positions. This can lead to dizziness, lightheadedness, or fainting.
Choice A is wrong because it is not a sign of hypovolemia, but rather a possible cause of it. Epistaxis is a nosebleed that can result from trauma, infection, dryness, or coagulation disorders.
Choice B is wrong because it is not a specific sign of hypovolemia, but rather a nonspecific symptom that can have many causes. Headache can be associated with dehydration, but it can also be caused by stress, infection, inflammation, or other factors.
Choice D is wrong because it is not a sign of hypovolemia, but rather a sign of fluid volume excess.
Fluid volume excess is an increase in blood volume due to fluid retention or overload. Fluid volume excess can cause dyspnea, which is difficulty breathing or shortness of breath.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are 90/60 mm Hg to 120/80 mm Hg for adults. Normal ranges for heart rate are 60 to 100 beats per minute for adults.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The leader allows the group to discuss whatever they would like to regarding their medications. This is because a laissez-faire leadership style is characterized by minimal guidance and direction from the leader, and maximum freedom and autonomy for the followers. The leader does not impose any rules or expectations on the group, and lets them decide how to manage their own learning and behavior.
Choice A is wrong because having group members vote on what they would like to learn about during the session is an example of a democratic leadership style, not a laissez-faire one.
A democratic leader solicits input and feedback from the group, and makes decisions based on consensus and majority rule.
Choice B is wrong because lecturing about medication adverse effects to the group members is an example of an authoritarian leadership style, not a laissez-faire one.
An authoritarian leader dictates what the group should do and how they should do it, without considering their opinions or preferences.
Choice D is wrong because encouraging group members to remain silent until questions are called for is an example of a paternalistic leadership style, not a laissez-faire one.
A paternalistic leader treats the group as if they are incapable of making their own decisions, and assumes a protective and nurturing role over them.
Normal ranges for leadership styles are not applicable in this context, as different styles may be more or less effective depending on the situation and the goals of the group.
However, some general advantages and disadvantages of each style are:
- Laissez-faire: Advantages - fosters creativity, independence, and self-motivation; Disadvantages - may lead to chaos, confusion, and lack of accountability.
- Democratic: Advantages - promotes participation, collaboration, and satisfaction; Disadvantages - may be time-consuming, inefficient, and conflict-prone.
- Authoritarian: Advantages - provides clarity, direction, and control; Disadvantages - may cause resentment, resistance, and dependency.
- Paternalistic: Advantages - creates trust, loyalty, and commitment; Disadvantages - may inhibit growth, development, and empowerment.
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