A nurse is creating a plan of care for a female client who has recurrent urinary tract infections.
Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
Drink four 240 mL (8 oz) glasses of water each day.
Void every 5 to 6 hr during the day
Wear loose-fitting underwear
Take a bubble bath after intercourse
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is choice C. Wear loose-fitting underwear. This is because tight-fitting underwear can trap moisture and create a favorable environment for bacterial growth, which can increase the risk of urinary tract infections (UTIs) . Loose-fitting underwear can allow air circulation and prevent moisture accumulation .
Choice A is wrong because drinking four 240 mL (8 oz) glasses of water each day is not enough to prevent UTIs. The recommended amount of water intake for adults is about 2 to 3 liters per day . Drinking enough water can help flush out bacteria from the urinary tract and prevent them from adhering to the bladder wall .
Choice B is wrong because voiding every 5 to 6 hours during the day is too infrequent and can increase the risk of UTIs. The nurse should advise the client to void every 2 to 3 hours during the day . This can help prevent urinary stasis and bacterial multiplication in the bladder .
Choice D is wrong because taking a bubble bath after intercourse can increase the risk of UTIs. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid bubble baths, vaginal douches, or sprays, as they can irritate the urethra and introduce bacteria into the urinary tract . The nurse should also advise the client to empty the bladder before and after sexual intercourse, as this can help remove bacteria that may have entered the urethra during sexual activity
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is b. Remove the device from the room.
Choice A rationale:
- Reporting the defect to the equipment maintenance staff is essential,but it's not the immediate priority.The primary concern is to eliminate the safety hazard posed by the frayed cord to prevent potential harm to the client and others.
- Delaying the removal of the device could lead to electrical shock,fire,or other serious consequences.
- Therefore,removing the device from the room takes precedence over reporting the defect.
Choice B rationale:
- Removing the device from the room is the most appropriate first action because it:
- Eliminates the immediate safety hazard.
- Prevents potential harm to the client and others.
- Protects the device from further damage.
- Ensures the safety of the environment.
- Demonstrates the nurse's prioritization of patient safety.
Choice C rationale:
- Initiating a requisition for a replacement CPM device is necessary to ensure the client's continued treatment.
- However,it's not the first action because it doesn't address the immediate safety concern.
- The nurse should first remove the faulty device and then initiate the process for obtaining a replacement.
Choice D rationale:
- Ensuring the device inspection sticker is current is a vital part of equipment maintenance.
- However,it's not relevant to the immediate safety issue of the frayed cord.
- The presence of a current inspection sticker doesn't guarantee the device's safety or functionality at that moment.
- The nurse must prioritize removing the hazard and then follow up with appropriate documentation and reporting.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E","F"]
Explanation
A:Provide frequent rest periods for the client. This is correct because the client has anaemia (low haemoglobin and hematocrit), which can cause weakness and fatigue. Rest periods can help conserve energy and prevent complications.
B:Instruct the client to avoid blowing their nose forcefully. This is correct because the client has thrombocytopenia (low platelet count), which can increase the risk of bleeding. Blowing the nose forcefully can cause nasal bleeding or rupture of blood vessels.
C: Assess the client’s level of orientation. This is correct because the client has hepatic encephalopathy (brain dysfunction due to liver failure), which can cause confusion, mood changes, and disorientation. Assessing the client’s level of orientation can help monitor the severity of hepatic encephalopathy and guide appropriate interventions.
D:Place the client on a low-carbohydrate diet. This is incorrect because a low-carbohydrate diet can worsen hepatic encephalopathy by increasing ammonia production in the gut. The client should be on a high-protein, high-calorie diet to provide adequate nutrition and prevent muscle wasting.
E: Restrict the client’s sodium intake. This is correct because the client has ascites (fluid accumulation in the abdomen) due to portal hypertension (high blood pressure in the portal vein). Restricting sodium intake can help reduce fluid retention and prevent further complications.
F Advise the client to avoid the use of soap and alcohol-based lotions. This is correct because the client has pruritus (itching) due to high bilirubin levels in the blood. Soap and alcohol-based lotions can dry out the skin and worsen pruritus. The client should use mild cleansers and moisturizers to soothe the skin.
G: Place the client under contact isolation. This is incorrect because there is no indication that the client has an infectious disease that requires contact isolation. Contact isolation is used for clients who have diseases that can be transmitted by direct or indirect contact with the client or their environment, such as Clostridioides difficile infection or methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection.
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