A nurse is reporting a client’s laboratory tests to the provider to obtain a prescription for the client’s daily warfarin.
Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to report to obtain the prescription for the warfarin?
INR
Fibrinogen level
aPTT
Platelet count
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. INR.
Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that inhibits the synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, and X in the liver.
These factors are part of the extrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are measured by the prothrombin time (PT) and the international normalized ratio (INR).
The INR is a standardized way of reporting the PT that accounts for the variability of different reagents and instruments.
The INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose accordingly.
The target INR range depends on the indication for warfarin, but it is usually between 2 and 3 for most conditions.
Choice B is wrong because fibrinogen level is not affected by warfarin.
Fibrinogen is a precursor of fibrin, which forms the final step of the coagulation cascade.
Fibrinogen level can be decreased in conditions such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), liver disease, or severe bleeding. Choice C is wrong because aPTT is not affected by warfarin.
aPTT measures the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are mainly dependent on factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII.
These factors are not inhibited by warfarin.
aPTT is used to monitor the effect of heparin, a direct antithrombin agent that inhibits thrombin and factor Xa.
Choice D is wrong because platelet count is not affected by warfarin.
Platelets are cell fragments that adhere to damaged blood vessels and form aggregates to initiate hemostasis.
Platelet count can be decreased in conditions such as immune thrombocytopenia (ITP), heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), or bone marrow suppression.
Normal ranges:
- INR: 0.8-1.2
- Fibrinogen: 200-400 mg/dL
- aPTT: 25-35 seconds
- Platelet count: 150-450 x 10^9/L References:
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice C.
Choice A rationale: While additional staff may be needed, the primary focus during a mass casualty event is triage and immediate care. Choice B rationale: Media relations are important, but the nurse's priority is direct patient care. Choice C rationale: Assessing incoming clients and determining their medical needs is crucial for prioritizing care and allocating resources effectively. Choice D rationale: Discharging stable clients may be necessary in extreme circumstances, but it is not the immediate priority. The focus should be on providing care to the influx of injured patients.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. Holding the client’s eyes shut for a few seconds.
This is because the eyes of a deceased client do not close naturally and may remain open after death. Holding them shut for a few seconds helps to keep them closed and prevent drying of the corneas.
This also gives a more peaceful appearance to the client’s body for the family visit.
Choice A is wrong because crossing the client’s arms across their chest is not a standard postmortem care procedure. It may also interfere with the placement of identification tags on the wrists.
Choice B is wrong because placing the client in a high-Fowler’s position is not necessary or appropriate for postmortem care. The client should be placed in a supine position with the head of the bed elevated to prevent livor mortis (purple discoloration of the skin) on the face.
Choice D is wrong because removing the client’s dentures from their mouth is not recommended for postmortem care. The dentures should be left in place to maintain the shape of the face and prevent the jaw from dropping.
Normal ranges are not applicable for this question as it does not involve any physiological measurements.
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