A nurse is reporting a client’s laboratory tests to the provider to obtain a prescription for the client’s daily warfarin.
Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to report to obtain the prescription for the warfarin?
INR
Fibrinogen level
aPTT
Platelet count
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. INR.
Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that inhibits the synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, and X in the liver.
These factors are part of the extrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are measured by the prothrombin time (PT) and the international normalized ratio (INR).
The INR is a standardized way of reporting the PT that accounts for the variability of different reagents and instruments.
The INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose accordingly.
The target INR range depends on the indication for warfarin, but it is usually between 2 and 3 for most conditions.
Choice B is wrong because fibrinogen level is not affected by warfarin.
Fibrinogen is a precursor of fibrin, which forms the final step of the coagulation cascade.
Fibrinogen level can be decreased in conditions such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), liver disease, or severe bleeding. Choice C is wrong because aPTT is not affected by warfarin.
aPTT measures the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are mainly dependent on factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII.
These factors are not inhibited by warfarin.
aPTT is used to monitor the effect of heparin, a direct antithrombin agent that inhibits thrombin and factor Xa.
Choice D is wrong because platelet count is not affected by warfarin.
Platelets are cell fragments that adhere to damaged blood vessels and form aggregates to initiate hemostasis.
Platelet count can be decreased in conditions such as immune thrombocytopenia (ITP), heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), or bone marrow suppression.
Normal ranges:
- INR: 0.8-1.2
- Fibrinogen: 200-400 mg/dL
- aPTT: 25-35 seconds
- Platelet count: 150-450 x 10^9/L References:
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. A client who is ambulatory and receiving oxygen should be evacuated first during a fire because they are at risk of fire and explosion from the oxygen source. The nurse should instruct the staff to turn off the oxygen supply, remove the oxygen device from the client, and assist them to walk out of the building using the nearest exit.
Choice B is wrong because a client who uses a wheelchair and is confused is not in immediate danger from the fire. They can be evacuated using a swing carry or an extremity carry by two staff members after the clients who are more vulnerable are evacuated.
Choice C is wrong because a client who is bedridden and wears a hearing aid is not in immediate danger from the fire. They can be evacuated using a cradle drop by one staff member after the clients who are more vulnerable are evacuated.
Choice D is wrong because a client who has a fracture and is in balance suspension traction is not in immediate danger from the fire. They can be evacuated using a special device such as a sked or a sled by two or more staff members after the clients who are more vulnerable are evacuated.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice b. "I can start the medication 30 minutes earlier."Choice A rationale: This is an inappropriate response, as the nurse should not adjust the time and schedule for the administration of alteplase recombinant, which is a time-sensitive medication used to treat a thrombus in the coronary artery. The administration of this medication must be done within a specific time frame to be effective.Choice B rationale: This is the correct answer. Alteplase recombinant is a thrombolytic medication used to dissolve blood clots in the coronary artery. It is a time-sensitive medication, and it is crucial to administer it as soon as possible to minimize the damage to the heart muscle. Starting the medication 30 minutes earlier is an appropriate action to include in the plan of care, as it can help ensure the medication is administered within the recommended time frame.Choice C rationale: This is an inappropriate response. Alteplase recombinant should be administered within a specific time frame, typically within 3 to 4.5 hours of the onset of symptoms. Waiting up to 2 hours after the usual schedule time to give the medication would be outside the recommended time frame and could potentially reduce the effectiveness of the treatment.Choice D rationale: This is an inappropriate response. Alteplase recombinant should be infused at a specific rate, as recommended by the manufacturer or healthcare provider. Infusing the medication at a faster rate could increase the risk of adverse effects and should not be included in the plan of care without specific instructions from the healthcare provider.
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