A nurse is caring for a client who has a placenta previa.
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Nausea.
Polyhydramnios.
Uterine tenderness.
Spotting.
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is choice D, spotting.
Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta implants in the lower part of the uterus, partly or completely covering the cervical opening.
This can cause painless, bright red vaginal bleeding, usually in the third trimester.
Spotting is a sign of placenta previa and should be reported to the provider immediately.
Choice A is wrong because nausea is not a specific finding of placenta previa.
Nausea can occur in normal pregnancy or in other conditions such as hyperemesis gravidarum or preeclampsia.
Choice B is wrong because polyhydramnios is not a finding of placenta previa.
Polyhydramnios is a condition where there is too much amniotic fluid in the uterus, which can cause complications such as preterm labor, cord prolapse, or fetal malformations.
Choice C is wrong because uterine tenderness is not a finding of placenta previa.
Uterine tenderness is a sign of abruptio placentae, which is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery.
This can cause severe abdominal pain, dark red vaginal bleeding, and fetal distress.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Answer and explanation.
The correct answer is choice C, hypertension. Hypertension is a contraindication to living kidney donation because it can increase the risk of kidney disease and cardiovascular complications in the donor. Hypertension can also affect the quality and survival of the donated kidney in the recipient.
Therefore, a potential donor with uncontrolled or poorly controlled hypertension should not undergo nephrectomy.
Choice A, osteoarthritis, is not a contraindication to living kidney donation.
Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease that does not affect the kidneys or the cardiovascular system.
It may cause pain and stiffness in the joints, but it can be managed with medications and physical therapy. A potential donor with osteoarthritis can donate a kidney if they have normal kidney function and no other medical problems.
Choice B, primary glaucoma, is not a contraindication to living kidney donation.
Primary glaucoma is a condition that causes increased pressure in the eye and can lead to vision loss if untreated.
It does not affect the kidneys or the cardiovascular system. A potential donor with primary glaucoma can donate a kidney if they have normal kidney function and no other medical problems.
Choice D, amputation, is not a contraindication to living kidney donation.
Amputation is the surgical removal of a limb or part of a limb due to injury, infection, or disease.
It does not affect the kidneys or the cardiovascular system. A potential donor with amputation can donate a kidney if they have normal kidney function and no other medical problems.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are less than 120/80 mmHg for systolic and diastolic pressure, respectively.
Normal ranges for kidney function are eGFR above 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 and albuminuria below 30 mg/g.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. A client who is scheduled for a colonoscopy and is taking sodium phosphate requires follow-up care because sodium phosphate can cause colonic mucosal damage and electrolyte imbalances that may affect the safety and accuracy of the colonoscopy. Sodium phosphate is a bowel preparation agent that empties the colon before the procedure, but it can also cause dehydration, kidney injury, and cardiac arrhythmias.
Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client’s fluid intake, renal function, and serum electrolytes before and after the colonoscopy.
Choice A is wrong because a client who received a Mantoux test 48 hours ago and has an induration does not necessarily require follow-up care. A Mantoux test is a skin test that detects infection by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacterium that causes tuberculosis (TB). The test involves injecting a small amount of tuberculin purified protein derivative (PPD) into the skin and measuring the size of the induration (firm swelling) after 48 to 72 hours. The interpretation of the test result depends on the size of the induration and the risk factors of the client for TB infection or disease. For example, an induration of 5 mm or more is considered positive in people living with HIV, recent contacts of infectious TB cases, or people with chest x-ray findings suggestive of previous TB disease. However, an induration of 15 mm or more is considered positive in people with no known risk factors for TB.
Therefore, the nurse should assess the client’s history and risk factors before determining whether the Mantoux test result requires follow-up care.
Choice C is wrong because a client who is taking bumetanide and has a potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L does not require follow-up care.
Bumetanide is a loop diuretic that lowers blood pressure by increasing urine output and reducing fluid retention. However, it can also cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) as a side effect. The normal range for serum potassium is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L, so a level of 3.6 mEq/L is within the normal range and does not indicate hypokalemia.
Therefore, the nurse does not need to intervene for this client.
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