A nurse is reviewing a client’s complete blood count (CBC) and notes an RBC count of 3.5 million/mm³ and a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 102 mm³. Based on these values, the most appropriate action for the nurse would be to:
Administer vitamin B12 to increase RBC size.
Administer vitamin B12 to restore normal RBC maturation.
Administer medication to decrease RBC size.
Administer iron to increase the formation of hemoglobin molecules.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Administering vitamin B12 to increase RBC size is not appropriate in this scenario. The elevated MCV indicates macrocytic anemia, which is often due to vitamin B12 deficiency. The goal is to restore normal RBC maturation, not to increase RBC size.
Choice B rationale
Administering vitamin B12 to restore normal RBC maturation is the appropriate action. The elevated MCV indicates macrocytic anemia, which is often due to vitamin B12 deficiency.
Administering vitamin B12 will help restore normal RBC maturation and correct the anemia.
Choice C rationale
Administering medication to decrease RBC size is not appropriate in this scenario. The elevated MCV indicates macrocytic anemia, which is often due to vitamin B12 deficiency. The goal is to restore normal RBC maturation, not to decrease RBC size.
Choice D rationale
Administering iron to increase the formation of hemoglobin molecules is not appropriate in this scenario. The elevated MCV indicates macrocytic anemia, which is often due to vitamin B12 deficiency. Iron supplementation is typically used for microcytic anemia, not macrocytic anemia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Administering antihypertensive medication as prescribed is the priority action for a client with a history of hypertension presenting with severe headache, blurred vision, and confusion.
These symptoms suggest a hypertensive crisis, which requires immediate blood pressure reduction to prevent further complications.
Choice B rationale
Preparing the client for a lumbar puncture is not the priority action in this scenario. While a lumbar puncture may be necessary to rule out other conditions, the immediate concern is to manage the hypertensive crisis.
Choice C rationale
Initiating seizure precautions is important if the client is at risk of seizures, but the priority action is to address the hypertensive crisis by administering antihypertensive medication.
Choice D rationale
Monitoring the client’s blood glucose levels is important for overall health management, but it is not the priority action in this scenario. The immediate concern is to manage the hypertensive crisis.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Acute pancreatitis is characterized by severe epigastric pain and elevated levels of amylase and lipase. These enzymes are released into the bloodstream when the pancreas is inflamed, making acute pancreatitis the most likely diagnosis.
Choice B rationale
Acute hematochezia refers to the passage of fresh blood through the anus, usually in or with stools. It is not associated with elevated amylase and lipase levels or severe epigastric pain.
Choice C rationale
Left heart failure can cause symptoms such as shortness of breath and fluid retention, but it does not typically cause elevated amylase and lipase levels or severe epigastric pain.
Choice D rationale
Chronic hepatic failure involves long-term liver damage and may present with jaundice, ascites, and other symptoms. It is not associated with elevated amylase and lipase levels or severe epigastric pain.
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