A nurse is reviewing laboratory results of a client who has atrial fibrillation and is taking warfarin. For which of the following results should the nurse notify the provider?
Platelets 190,000/mm3
Hct 44%
PT 45 seconds
Hgb 16 g/dL
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Platelets 190,000/mm3 is within the normal range of 150,000 to 450,000/mm3. This result does not indicate a bleeding risk or a need to adjust the warfarin dose.
Choice B reason: Hct 44% is within the normal range of 37% to 47% for females and 42% to 52% for males. This result does not indicate anemia or polycythemia, which could affect the warfarin therapy.
Choice C reason: PT 45 seconds is above the normal range of 11 to 13.5 seconds. This result indicates that the blood is taking too long to clot, which increases the risk of bleeding. The nurse should notify the provider and expect a decrease in the warfarin dose.
Choice D reason: Hgb 16 g/dL is within the normal range of 12 to 16 g/dL for females and 14 to 18 g/dL for males. This result does not indicate anemia or polycythemia, which could affect the warfarin therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because aspirin is not a suitable medication for preventing venous thromboembolism (VTE) in a client who is postoperative following hip arthroplasty. Aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that has antiplatelet and analgesic effects, but it is not as effective as anticoagulants for VTE prophylaxis.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because alteplase is not a medication for preventing VTE, but for treating it. Alteplase is a thrombolytic agent that dissolves existing blood clots by activating plasminogen. It is used for acute ischemic stroke, myocardial infarction, and massive pulmonary embolism, but it has a high risk of bleeding and is contraindicated in clients who have had recent surgery.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because clopidogrel is not a medication for preventing VTE, but for preventing arterial thrombosis. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits the adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor on platelets, preventing their aggregation. It is used for clients who have had acute coronary syndrome, percutaneous coronary intervention, or ischemic stroke, but it is not effective for VTE prophylaxis.
Choice D reason: This is correct because enoxaparin is a medication for preventing VTE in a client who is postoperative following hip arthroplasty. Enoxaparin is a low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) that inhibits factor Xa and thrombin, preventing the formation of fibrin. It is administered subcutaneously once or twice daily and does not require routine laboratory monitoring. It has a lower risk of bleeding and heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) than unfractionated heparin.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Distended neck veins is not a manifestation of acute hemolytic reaction, but it may indicate fluid overload, which is another possible complication of blood transfusion. Fluid overload may occur when the blood volume or rate of infusion exceeds the client's circulatory capacity. Fluid overload may manifest as dyspnea, crackles, edema, hypertension, or tachycardia.
Choice B reason: Client report of low back pain is a manifestation of acute hemolytic reaction, which is a life-threatening condition that occurs when the donor blood is incompatible with the recipient's blood. Acute hemolytic reaction may occur within minutes or hours of the transfusion and may cause the destruction of the transfused red blood cells. Acute hemolytic reaction may manifest as fever, chills, low back pain, hemoglobinuria, hypotension, or shock.
Choice C reason: A productive cough is not a manifestation of acute hemolytic reaction, but it may indicate a respiratory infection, which is a potential risk of blood transfusion. Blood transfusion may transmit infectious agents, such as bacteria, viruses, or parasites, from the donor to the recipient. A productive cough may also be a sign of pulmonary edema, which may result from fluid overload or transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI).
Choice D reason: Client report of tinnitus is not a manifestation of acute hemolytic reaction, but it may indicate ototoxicity, which is a possible adverse effect of some medications, such as aminoglycosides, loop diuretics, or salicylates. Ototoxicity may damage the inner ear or the auditory nerve and cause hearing loss, tinnitus, or vertigo. The nurse should assess the client's medication history and monitor the client's hearing function.
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