A nurse is reviewing laboratory results of a pregnant patient.Which result will require further assessment?

Rubella titer 1:33.

Serologic test for syphilis (STS) - non-reactive.

Blood type A-negative.

Hemoglobin 12.2 gm/dL.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A rubella titer of 1:33 indicates a low level of immunity to rubella, which can be dangerous for a pregnant woman and her fetus.

Rubella is a viral infection that can cause birth defects or miscarriage if contracted during pregnancy. A rubella titer of 1:10 or higher is considered protective.

Choice B is wrong because a non-reactive serologic test for syphilis (STS) means that the patient does not have syphilis, which is a bacterial infection that can also harm the fetus if untreated.

Choice C is wrong because blood type A-negative does not require further assessment unless the patient has antibodies to the Rh factor, which can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn if the fetus is Rh-positive.

This can be prevented by giving the patient Rh immunoglobulin injections during pregnancy and after delivery.

Choice D is wrong because hemoglobin 12.2 gm/dL is within the normal range for a pregnant woman, which is 11 to 14 gm/dL.

Hemoglobin is the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen.

A low hemoglobin level can indicate anemia, which can affect the oxygen delivery to the fetus and increase the risk of preterm labor or low birth weight.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The correct answer is choice A.“To determine fetal lung maturity.” An amniocentesis at 37 weeks of gestation can be done to measure the lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio in the amniotic fluid, which indicates the level of surfactant production and the readiness of the fetal lungs for breathing.A low L/S ratio can indicate fetal compromise due to gestational diabetes.

Choice B is wrong because fetal renal function is not assessed by amniocentesis, but by ultrasound or biophysical profile.

Choice C is wrong because amniotic fluid glucose level is not a reliable indicator of fetal well-being or gestational diabetes control.

Choice D is wrong because congenital anomalies are usually detected earlier in pregnancy by ultrasound, maternal serum screening, or chorionic villus sampling.

Normal ranges for L/S ratio are 2:1 or higher for term fetuses and 1.5:1 or higher for preterm fetuses.

A. Abdominal distention. B. High-pitched cry. C. Jitteriness. D. Excessive drooling.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Answer and explanation..

The correct answer is choice C. Jitteriness.Jitteriness is a sign of low blood sugar (hypoglycemia) which is common in infants of diabetic mothers (IDM) because they have high levels of insulin in their blood that lower their glucose levels after birth.Hypoglycemia can also cause other symptoms such as seizures, lethargy, poor feeding, sweating, trembling, and pale complexion.

Choice A is wrong because abdominal distention is not a typical symptom of IDM.

It can be caused by other conditions such as intestinal obstruction or infection.

Choice B is wrong because high-pitched cry is not a specific symptom of IDM.

It can be caused by many factors such as pain, hunger, or neurological problems.

Choice D is wrong because excessive drooling is not a common symptom of IDM.

It can be a sign of oral problems such as teething or infection.

Normal ranges for blood glucose in newborns are 40 to 150 mg/dL (2.2 to 8.3 mmol/L).

IDM should be monitored closely for hypoglycemia and treated promptly with glucose if needed.

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A nurse is reviewing laboratory results of a pregnant patient.Which result will require further assessment?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Question 71. A nurse is caring for a client who has gestational diabetes and is scheduled for an amniocentesis at 37 weeks of gestation due to suspected fetal compromise.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a newborn of a diabetic mother (IDM). What should the nurse monitor for during care of the newborn?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client treated for preterm labor is to be discharged to home. Which instruction should a nurse include in this client’s discharge plan? The client should:.

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A 23-year-old primigravida who appears to be in her third trimester of pregnancy comes to the labor and delivery unit reporting acute abdominal pain. She has had no prenatal care. Which assessment should the nurse do first?

A patient has been instructed to increase the protein in her diet. Which statement by the patient shows a need for further instruction?

A patient who is 33 weeks pregnant has been experiencing Braxton-Hicks contractions.Which information should the nurse include in responding to this patient?

The physician prescribes prostaglandin (PGE2) gel for a patient being admitted for induction of labor. Which finding would best indicate that the prostaglandin gel is effective?