A nurse is reviewing the health history and bladder scan results of a client who reports dribbling urine and feeling bladder fullness. The bladder scan shows a post-void residual volume of 300 mL. Which type of urinary incontinence should the nurse suspect?
Functional incontinence
Overflow incontinence
Urge incontinence
Stress incontinence
The Correct Answer is B
A. Functional incontinence: Functional incontinence occurs when physical or cognitive barriers prevent timely toileting, despite normal bladder function. This client demonstrates incomplete bladder emptying with significant residual urine.
B. Overflow incontinence: Overflow incontinence results from urinary retention and incomplete bladder emptying, leading to frequent dribbling and a sensation of bladder fullness. The bladder scan showing 300 mL post-void residual strongly supports this diagnosis, as the bladder remains distended even after voiding.
C. Urge incontinence: Urge incontinence is caused by overactive bladder contractions, leading to sudden, strong urges to urinate and involuntary leakage. It is not typically associated with high post-void residual volumes, making it less likely in this case.
D. Stress incontinence: Stress incontinence is leakage of urine during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as coughing or sneezing. It occurs due to weak pelvic floor muscles, not bladder retention, so high residual urine volume does not match this condition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]
Explanation
A. Ibuprofen: NSAIDs such as ibuprofen are on the Beers List due to the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, renal impairment, and hypertension in older adults. Safer alternatives are recommended when possible.
B. Diazepam: Long-acting benzodiazepines like diazepam are included because they increase the risk of sedation, confusion, and falls in older adults. Shorter-acting agents or nonpharmacologic approaches are preferred.
C. Warfarin: Warfarin is not broadly listed as inappropriate but requires careful monitoring of INR and diet. It is often necessary for anticoagulation and is not automatically contraindicated for older adults.
D. Digoxin: Digoxin is on the Beers List at doses greater than 0.125 mg/day due to the risk of toxicity, particularly with reduced renal clearance in older adults. Lower doses or alternatives are often considered safer.
E. Metformin: Metformin is not on the Beers List and is commonly used safely in older adults, except in cases of severe renal impairment where lactic acidosis risk is increased. It is generally a preferred first-line therapy for type 2 diabetes.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Ensure adequate hydration and fiber intake: Adequate fluid intake softens stool, while dietary fiber increases stool bulk and promotes peristalsis. Together, they are first-line nutritional strategies for preventing and managing constipation in older adults.
B. Increase intake of refined grains: Refined grains lack fiber, which slows bowel transit and worsens constipation. Whole grains are preferred because they provide insoluble fiber that supports regular bowel movements.
C. Reduce dietary fiber intake: Lowering fiber intake would further impair bowel motility and stool formation, increasing the risk of constipation rather than alleviating it. Older adults typically require higher fiber intake unless contraindicated.
D. Consume more dairy products: Excess dairy, particularly cheese and whole milk, can contribute to constipation due to low fiber and high fat content. While dairy provides calcium and protein, it is not recommended as a constipation management strategy.
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