A home health nurse is completing an admission on a client who recently experienced a transient ischemic attack (TIA). During the assessment, the client begins to report a severe headache and numbness in the left arm. Which action should the nurse take initially?

Call 9-1-1.

Determine if the client has a history of migraine headaches.

Give the client a dose of acetaminophen.

Assure the client the symptoms will resolve within 24 hours.

None of the above.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: Call 9-1-1 is the best action to take initially, as the client may be having another TIA or a stroke. The nurse should act fast and seek emergency medical attention for the client, as timely intervention can prevent permanent brain damage and disability.

Choice B reason: Determine if the client has a history of migraine headaches is not the best action to take initially, as it may delay the diagnosis and treatment of a possible TIA or stroke. Migraine headaches can cause similar symptoms to a TIA or stroke, but they are not the same condition and require different management.

Choice C reason: Give the client a dose of acetaminophen is not the best action to take initially, as it may mask the symptoms of a possible TIA or stroke and interfere with the blood clotting process. Acetaminophen is a pain reliever and a fever reducer, but it is not effective for treating a TIA or stroke.

Choice D reason: Assure the client the symptoms will resolve within 24 hours is not the best action to take initially, as it may give the client a false sense of security and prevent them from seeking urgent medical care. A TIA or stroke is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention, as the symptoms may worsen or become permanent.

Choice E reason: None of the above is not the correct answer, as there is one choice that is the best action to take initially.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Squamous cell carcinoma is a type of skin cancer that develops from the squamous cells that make up the outer layer of the skin. It usually appears as a scaly, red, or crusty patch or lump that may bleed or ulcerate. It is the second most common type of skin cancer, after basal cell carcinoma, but it is less common than melanoma.

Choice B reason: Actinic keratosis is a skin condition that causes rough, scaly, or crusty patches or spots on the skin that are usually caused by sun exposure. It is not a type of skin cancer, but it is considered a precancerous lesion, as it can sometimes develop into squamous cell carcinoma if left untreated.

Choice C reason: Kaposi sarcoma is a rare type of skin cancer that causes purple, red, or brown patches or nodules on the skin or mucous membranes. It is caused by a virus called human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8), and it mainly affects people with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV/AIDS or organ transplants.

Choice D reason: Melanoma is a type of skin cancer that develops from the melanocytes, the cells that produce the pigment melanin that gives the skin its color. It usually appears as a mole or a new or changing spot on the skin that may have an irregular shape, color, or border. It is the most common type of skin cancer, and also the most serious, as it can spread to other parts of the body if not detected and treated early.

A. Regular exercise should not exceed 30 minutes three times a week. B. A walking program is not recommended for an older adult with diabetes. C. Insulin can most probably be discontinued if the individual adheres to the walking program. D. The walking regimen needs to be done on a regularly scheduled basis.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Regular exercise should exceed 30 minutes three times a week, not not exceed. Exercise helps lower blood glucose levels and improve insulin sensitivity.

Choice B reason: A walking program is recommended for an older adult with diabetes, not not recommended. Walking is a low-impact, moderate-intensity exercise that can benefit people with diabetes.

Choice C reason: Insulin can not be discontinued if the individual adheres to the walking program, not most probably. Insulin is a vital hormone that regulates blood glucose levels and prevents complications from diabetes. Exercise alone is not enough to replace insulin therapy.

Choice D reason: The walking regimen needs to be done on a regularly scheduled basis. This is the correct answer because it helps the individual maintain a consistent blood glucose level and avoid hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia. It also helps the individual plan their insulin doses and meals accordingly.

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A home health nurse is completing an admission on a client who recently experienced a transient ischemic attack (TIA). During the assessment, the client begins to report a severe headache and numbness in the left arm. Which action should the nurse take initially?

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Correct Answer is D

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An older adult diagnosed with Type II DM who is being treated with insulin wants to increase his activity level and begin a walking program. What recommendations should the nurse provide to this client?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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A home health nurse is completing an admission on a client who recently experienced a transient ischemic attack (TIA). During the assessment, the client begins to report a severe headache and numbness in the left arm. Which action should the nurse take initially?